ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ĐỊA LÝ ĐỀ 16 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ĐỊA LÝ ĐỀ 16 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

(Nếu là đề cương nhiều công thức nên mọi người nên tải về để xem tránh mất công thức)

Đề cương liên quan: Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

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Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN ĐỊA LÝ ĐỀ 16 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN: ĐỊA LÝ ĐỀ 16 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Câu 1(2 đ ).

Giải thích tại sao vị trí địa lí nước ta được xem là một trong các nguồn lực quan trọng để phát triển kinh tế – xã hội.

Câu 2.

Anh ( chị ) hãy giải thích tại sao phải hình thành cơ cấu kinh tế nông, lâm, ngư nghiệp tại vùng Duyên hải miền Trung và phân tích thế mạnh của vùng trong việc hình thành cơ cấu kinh tế này.

Câu 3(3 đ). Cho bảng số liệu sau:

TRỊ GIÁ XUẤT KHẨU HÀNG HOÁ PHÂN THEO NHÓM CỦA NƯỚC TA (%)

Nhóm hàng	1995	1999	2000	2001	2002
CN nặng, khoáng sản	25.3	31.3	37.2	34.9	29.0
CN nhẹ, tiểu thủ CN	28.5	36.8	33.8	35.7	41.0
nghiệp
Nông, lâm, thuỷ sản	46.2	31.9	29.0	29.4	30.0

a, Vẽ biểu đồ thích hợp nhất thể hiện sự thay đổi cơ cấu giá trị xuất khẩu hàng hoá phân theo nhóm, thời kì 1995 -2002

b, Nêu nhận xét về sự thay đổi cơ cấu giá trị hàng hoá phân theo nhóm thời kì trên và giải thích vì sao nhóm hàng công nghiệp nhẹ và tiểu thủ công nghiệp tăng nhanh.

Câu 4(2 đ).

Trình bày các vùng trọng điểm sản xuất lương thực , thực phẩm ở nước ta.

Đáp án.

Câu 1. Vị trí địa lí nước ta được xem là một nguồn lực quan trọng để phát triển kinh tế xã hội vì:

a, Tạo cho nước ta có thiên nhiên đa dạng :

Tài nguyên khoáng sản phong phú, đa dạng với hơn 80 loại, 3500 điểm và mỏ quặng.

Khí hậu nhiệt đới ẩm gió mùa thích hợp với nhiều loại cây trồng vật nuôi.

Là nơi gặp gỡ của các luồng di cư động , thực vật làm cho hệ động , thực vật phong phú đa dạng.

b, hình thành nên nền văn hoá đa dạng :

Nước ta nằm gần các nền văn hoá lớn : TQ, ÂN ĐỘ.

Có nhiều dân tộc sinh sống.

c, Thuận lợi trong giao lưu và phát triển các ngành kinh tế :

Gần đường biển quốc tế, thuận lợi phát triển GTVT biển

Nằm ở trung tâm khu vực thuận lợi để trao đổi hàng hoá.

Vùng biển rộng lớn , giàu tiềm năng có thể phát triển nhiều ngành kinh tế. d, Nằm ở khu vực có nền kinh tế phát triển sôi động, cho phép nước ta :
Tận dụng các nguồn lực bên ngoài như vốn, công nghệ…

Có thị trường rộng lớn : TQ, AN ĐỘ, ĐNA

a, Duyên hải miền Trung phải hình thành cơ cấu kinh tế nông – lâm – Ngư nghiệp do :

Hình dạng lãnh thổ hẹp ngang theo chiều Đ- T, nhưng lại kéo dài theo chiều B- N, phía T là đồi núi, giữa là ĐB, phía Đ là vùng biển rộng lớn.
Vùng có khá nhiều tài nguyên nhưng chưa được khai thác ( N- L N)

Có sự phân hoá khá rõ của ĐKTN và TNTN, dân cư, lịch sử… cho phép phát triển nhiều ngành để khai thác hiệu quả nhất.

b, Phân tích các thế mạnh của vùng trong hình thành cơ cấu N- L- N :

Điểm thi 24h		Đề thi đáp án tốt nghiệp THPT
Xem tra điểm	thi tốt nghiệp THPT
			THPT
Đề thi tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông các năm		Xem tra đáp án đề thi tốt nghiệp

Nguồn: Diemthi.24h.com.vn

* Nông nghiệp :

Dựa trên cơ sở khai thác tổng hợp các thế mạnh về nông nghiệp của TD, ĐB và vùng biển

Đất NN chiếm 13.53 %.

Các ĐB nhỏ hẹp, chủ yếu là đất cát pha thuận lợi phát triển các cây công nghiệp ngắn ngày, cây ăn qủa…
Vùng đồi trước núi có thế mạnh về chăn nuôi đại gia súc, đàn bò chiếm hơn 50 % cả nước.

Một số nơi có đk hình thành các vùng chuyên canh cây CN lâu năm : cà phê ở Tây Nghệ An,

Quảng Trị, Cao su, hồ tiêu ở Quảng Bình, Quảng Trị.

* lâm nghiệp :

tài nguyên lâm nghiệp đứng thứ hai cả nước sau Tây Nguyên cả về dt và độ che phủ ( 34 5 độ che phủ)
Rừng tập trung ở phía tây, trong rừng có nhiều laọi gỗ quý..

Các cơ sở chế biến ở Vinh, Đà Nẵng , quy nhơn.

* Ngư nghiệp :

Cả 14 tỉnh đều giáp biển, vùng biển rộng lớn, giàu tiềm năng.

Bờ biển có nhiều vũng vịnh, đầm phá thuận lợi cho việc nuôi trồng.

hoạt động chế biến hải sản ngày càng phong phú đa dạng, với nhiều sản phẩm. câu 3.

a, vẽ biểu đồ miền. b, Nhận xét

nhìn chung thời kì 1995-2002, tỉ trọng các nhóm hàng xuất khẩu có sự thay đổi khá rõ.

Nhóm hàng Cn nặng và khoáng sản có xu hướng tăng song không ổn định.

Nhóm hang CN nhẹ và thủ công nghiệp tăng khá nhanh.

nhóm hàng N- L – N giảm nhanh sau đó tăng chậm.

c, giải thích.

tỉ trọng nhóm hàng Cn nhẹ tăng kgá nhanh do :

Nguồn lao động dồi dào, khéo tay, có nhiều kinh nghiệm.

Nguồn nguyên liệu đa dạng

thu hút được vốn đầu tư để phát triển,

Thị trường nước ngoài mở rộng.

Nhà nước có nhiều chính sách khuyến khích phát triển.

Câu 4. Các vùng trọng điểm LT – TP ở nước ta.

ĐBSCL :

là vùng trọng điểm số 1 của cả nước.

Sản lượng lương thực chiếm khoảng 50 % cả nước, dẫn đầu về trồng mía, cây ăn qủa.

Chăn nuôi lợn và gia cầm phát triển mạnh, nhất là nuôi vịt, chiếm hơn 50 % sản lượng thuỷ sản của cả nước.

ĐBSH

là vùng trọng điểm số 2 về lương thực , thực phẩm.

Sản lượng lương thực chiếm hơn 20 % cả nước.

Thế mạnh của vùng là sx rau quả, chăn nuôi lợn , gia cầm , cá.

Các vùng khác

Trung du và miền núi phía bắc : chăn nuôi trâu, bò, trồng đậu tương, mía lạc, cây ăn quả…
DHMT ;: chăn nuôi trâu bò, nuôi trồng đánh bắt thuỷ sản.

Tây nguyên : Phát triển chăn nuôi bò lấy thịt, sữa.

ĐNB : Trồng mía, đậu tương, cây ăn quả, nuôi trồng và đánh bắt thuỷ sản.

Điểm thi 24h		Đề thi đáp án tốt nghiệp THPT
Xem tra điểm	thi tốt nghiệp THPT
			THPT
Đề thi tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông các năm		Xem tra đáp án đề thi tốt nghiệp

Nguồn: Diemthi.24h.com.vn

Điểm thi 24h		Đề thi đáp án tốt nghiệp THPT
Xem tra điểm	thi tốt nghiệp THPT
			THPT
Đề thi tốt nghiệp trung học phổ thông các năm		Xem tra đáp án đề thi tốt nghiệp

June 15, 2019

Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

(Nếu là đề cương nhiều công thức nên mọi người nên tải về để xem tránh mất công thức)

Đề cương liên quan: Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

[toc]

Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

I. PHẦN CHUNG CHO TẤT CẢ CÁC THÍ SINH (8,0 điểm)

Câu I (2,5 điểm)

Xác định phạm vi của các miền tự nhiên ở nước ta và nêu đặc trưng cơ bản về khí hậu của mỗi miền.

Phân tích những ảnh hưởng tích cực của quá trình đô thị hóa đối với sự phát triển kinh tế – xã hội ở nước ta.

Câu II (2,5 điểm)

Lập bảng so sánh sự khác biệt giữa nền nông nghiệp cổ truyền và nền nông nghiệp hàng hóa.

Tại sao việc phát triển các vùng chuyên canh cây công nghiệp gắn liền với công nghiệp chế biến là một trong những phương hướng quan trọng trong chiến lược phát triển nông nghiệp ở nước ta?

Câu III (3,0 điểm) Cho bảng số liệu:

Lao động phân theo các khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009

(Đơn vị: nghìn người)

	Tổng số	Chia ra các khu vực kinh tế
Năm	Tổng số	Nông, lâm,	Công nghiệp
Năm	lao động	Nông, lâm,	Công nghiệp	Dịch vụ
	lao động	ngư nghiệp	và xây dựng	Dịch vụ
		ngư nghiệp	và xây dựng

2000	37600,6	24481,0	4929,7	8189,9
2002	39520,7	24468,8	6084,7	8967,2
2004	41616,3	24430,7	7216,5	9969,1
2007	42542,7	24351,5	7785,3	10405,9
2009	43542,6	24057,5	7885,3	11599,8

(Theo niên giám thống kê năm 2010)

Vẽ biểu đồ thích hợp nhất thể hiện sự thay đổi cơ cấu lao động phân theo khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009.
Nhận xét và giải thích về cơ cấu lao động phân theo khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009.

PHẦN RIÊNG (2,0 điểm)

Thí sinh chỉ được làm 1 trong 2 câu (Câu IV. a hoặc câu IV. b)

Câu IV. a. Theo chương trình Chuẩn (2,0 điểm)

Phân tích những thế mạnh để phát triển ngành công nghiệp điện lực ở nước ta.

Câu IV. b. Theo chương trình Nâng cao (2,0 điểm)

Trình bày sự phát triển của công nghiệp dầu khí ở nước ta. Giải thích tại sao trong quá trình công nghiệp hoá, công nghiệp năng lượng phải “đi trước một bước”?

———- HÕt ———-

Thí sinh không được sử dụng Atlat Địa lí. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Họ và tên thí sinh: ………………………………………………………; Số báo danh: ……………….

ĐÁP ÁN

Câu	Nội dung	Điểm

I. PHẦN CHUNG CHO TẤT CẢ CÁC THÍ SINH: (8,0 điểm)
I.	1. Xác định phạm vi của các miền tự nhiên ở nước ta và nêu đặc trưng cơ	1,5
(2,5	bản về khí hậu của mỗi miền.	1,5
(2,5	bản về khí hậu của mỗi miền.
điểm)
điểm)	*– Miền Bắc và Đông Bắc Bắc Bộ*
	+ Phạm vi: Ranh giới phía tây – tây nam của miền dọc theo tả ngạn sông	0,25
	Hồng và rìa phía tây, tây nam đồng bằng Bắc Bộ (gồm vùng núi Đông Bắc và	0,25

	đồng bằng Bắc Bộ).
	+ Khí hậu: gió mùa Đông Bắc hoạt động mạnh tạo nên một mùa đông lạnh,
		0,25
	sâu sắc nhất nước ta.	0,25
	sâu sắc nhất nước ta.
	*– Miền Tây Bắc và Bắc Trung Bộ*	0,25
	*– Miền Tây Bắc và Bắc Trung Bộ*
	+ Phạm vi: từ hữu ngạn sông Hồng đến dãy núi Bạch Mã.
	+ Phạm vi: từ hữu ngạn sông Hồng đến dãy núi Bạch Mã.
	+ Khí hậu: ảnh hưởng của gió mùa Đông Bắc giảm sút làm cho tính chất	0,25

	nhiệt đới tăng dần (so với miền Bắc và Đông Bắc Bắc Bộ).
	nhiệt đới tăng dần (so với miền Bắc và Đông Bắc Bắc Bộ).
	*– Miền Nam Trung Bộ và Nam Bộ*	0,25
	*– Miền Nam Trung Bộ và Nam Bộ*
	+ Phạm vi: từ dãy núi Bạch Mã trở vào Nam.
	+ Phạm vi: từ dãy núi Bạch Mã trở vào Nam.
	+ Khí hậu: cận xích đạo gió mùa, được thể hiện ở nền nhiệt cao, biên độ	0,25

	nhiệt độ năm nhỏ và sự phân chia hai mùa mưa – khô rõ rệt.
	nhiệt độ năm nhỏ và sự phân chia hai mùa mưa – khô rõ rệt.

	2. Phân tích những ảnh hưởng tích cực của quá trình đô thị hóa đối với	1,0
	sự phát triển kinh tế – xã hội ở nước ta.	1,0
	sự phát triển kinh tế – xã hội ở nước ta.

	– Đô thị hóa tác động mạnh đến quá trình chuyển dịch cơ cấu kinh tế của nước ta.	0,25
	– Các đô thị có ảnh hưởng rất lớn đến sự phát triển kinh tế – xã hội của địa
		0,25
	phương và các vùng trong nước.	0,25
	phương và các vùng trong nước.
	– Các thành phố, thị xã là các thị trường tiêu thụ sản phẩm hàng hóa lớn và đa

	dạng, là nơi sử dụng đông đảo lực lượng lao động có trình độ chuyên môn kĩ	0,25
	thuật; có cơ sở vật chất kĩ thuật hiện đại, có sức hút đối với đầu tư trong nước	0,25

	và nước ngoài, tạo ra động lực cho sự tăng trưởng và phát triển kinh tế.
	– Các đô thị có khả năng tạo ra nhiều việc làm và thu nhập cho người lao động.	0,25
		0,25

1

II.		1. Lập bảng so sánh sự khác biệt giữa nền nông nghiệp cổ truyền và nền									1,0
(2,5	nông nghiệp hàng hóa.										1,0
(2,5	nông nghiệp hàng hóa.
điểm)
điểm)			*Nền nông nghiệp cổ truyền*				*Nền nông nghiệp hàng hóa*

		– Sản xuất nhỏ, công cụ thủ công,					– Sản xuất quy mô lớn, sử dụng nhiều				0,25
		sử dụng nhiều sức người.					máy móc, vật tư nông nghiệp.				0,25
		sử dụng nhiều sức người.					máy móc, vật tư nông nghiệp.
											0,25
		– Năng suất lao động thấp.					– Năng suất lao động cao.				0,25

		– Sản suất tự cấp, tự túc, đa canh					– Sản xuất hàng hóa, đẩy mạnh thâm
		là chính.					canh, chuyên môn hóa. Liên kết nông –				0,25
							công nghiệp.
											0,25
		– Người sản xuất quan tâm nhiều					– Người sản xuất quan tâm nhiều hơn				0,25
		đến sản lượng.					đến thị trường tiêu thụ, lợi nhận.

		2. Tại sao việc phát triển các vùng					chuyên canh cây công nghiệp gắn liền
		với công nghiệp chế biến là một trong những phương hướng quan trọng									1,5
		trong chiến lược phát triển nông nghiệp ở nước ta?
		– Gắn chặt các vùng chuyên canh với công nghiệp chế biến trước hết nhằm
											0,25
		đưa công nghiệp phục vụ đắc lực cho nông nghiệp, từng bước thực hiện công									0,25

		nghiệp hóa nông thôn, đưa nông thôn xích lại gần thành thị.
		– Giảm chi phí, thời gian vận chuyển nguyên liệu từ nơi sản xuất đến nơi chế biến.									0,25
											0,25
		– Nâng cao chất lượng nguyên liệu từ đó nâng cao chất lượng sản phẩm sau									0,25

		khi chế biến, nâng cao giá trị của nông sản và thu nhập cho người nông dân.

		– Thu hút lao động, tạo thêm việc làm cho người dân, giảm tính mùa vụ trong									0,25

		nông nghiệp.
		nông nghiệp.
		– Thực hiện liên kết nông – công nghiệp, trong đó sản xuất nông nghiệp tạo ra

		nguyên liệu cho công nghiệp chế biến, còn công nghiệp chế biến lại làm tăng									0,25
	giá trị của nông phẩm, đem lại hiệu quả kinh tế cao tạo điều kiện cho ngành										0,25

	nông nghiệp phát triển.
		– Tạo điều kiện khai thác hợp lí tiềm năng tự nhiên của từng vùng.									0,25
											0,25

III.		1. Vẽ biểu đồ thích hợp nhất thể hiện sự thay đổi cơ cấu lao động phân									2,0
(3,0		theo khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009.									2,0
(3,0		theo khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009.
điểm)
điểm)		* Tính cơ cấu:
			Bảng cơ cấu lao động phân theo khu vực kinh tế ở nước ta
				giai đoạn 2000 – 2009				(Đơn vị: %)

			Năm	Tổng số	Nông, lâm,				Công nghiệp	Dịch vụ
			Năm	Tổng số	ngư nghiệp				và xây dựng	Dịch vụ
					ngư nghiệp				và xây dựng
											0,5
			2000	100,0		65,1			13,1	21,8	0,5

			2002	100,0		61,9			15,4	22,7

			2004	100,0		58,7			17,3	24,0

			2007	100,0		57,2			18,3	24,5

			2009	100,0		55,3			18,1	26,6

2

* Vẽ biểu đồ:

– Vẽ biểu đồ thích hợp nhất là biểu đồ miền (vẽ biểu đồ khác không cho điểm).

– Yêu cầu: vẽ chính xác số liệu, khoảng cách năm. Có đầy đủ: tên biểu đồ, chú 1,5 giải, ghi số liệu, đơn vị, năm. Trình bày sạch, đẹp, rõ ràng.

(Nếu thiếu, sai mỗi lỗi trừ 0,25 điểm)

Nhận xét và giải thích về cơ cấu lao động phân theo khu vực kinh tế ở

1,0

nước ta giai đoạn 2000 – 2009.

* Nhận xét:

– Lao động trong khu vực nông, lâm, ngư nghiệp chiếm tỉ trọng cao nhất, khu

0,25

vực dịch vụ chiếm tỉ trọng thấp, thấp nhất là khu vực công nghiệp và xây dựng (dẫn chứng).

– Cơ cấu lao động nước ta có sự thay đổi theo hướng tích cực: giảm tỉ trọng

lao động khu vực nông, lâm, ngư nghiệp; tăng tỉ trọng lao động khu vực công 0,25 nghiệp và xây dựng, dịch vụ (dẫn chứng).

Giải thích:

	– Lao động trong ngành nông nghiệp chiểm tỉ trọng cao nhất vì nước ta vẫn là	0,25
	một nước nông nghiệp, trình độ cơ giới hóa thấp.
	– Cơ cấu lao động có sự thay đổi theo hướng tích cực do nước ta đang tiến

	hành phát triển kinh tế theo hướng công nghiệp hóa, hiện đại hóa và do tác	0,25
	động của cuộc cách mạng khoa học kĩ thuật hiện đại.

II. PHẦN RIÊNG: (2,0 điểm)

IV.a.	Theo chương trình Chuẩn.
(2,0	Phân tích những thế mạnh để phát triển ngành công nghiệp điện lực ở	2,0
điểm)	nước ta.

	* Thế mạnh tự nhiên:
	– Đối với sản xuất nhiệt điện:
	+ Than: có trữ lượng lớn, bao gồm than đá, than nâu, than bùn. Đặc biệt là	0,25
	than đá ở Quảng Ninh (trữ lượng hơn 3 tỉ tấn) cho nhiệt lượng cao. Sản lượng
	khai thác than liên tục tăng, là cơ sở cho công nghiệp nhiệt điện.
	+ Dầu khí: tập trung ở các bể trầm tích chứa dầu ngoài thềm lục địa với trữ

	lượng vài tỉ tấn dầu và hàng trăm tỉ m³ khí. Sản lượng dầu khí tăng liên tục, là	0,25
	cơ sở để sản xuất điện từ khí.
	– Đối với sản xuất thủy điện: tiềm năng thủy điện của nước ta rất lớn (công

	suất đạt khoảng 30 triệu kW), tập trung chủ yếu ở hệ thống sông Hồng (37%)	0,25
	và hệ thống sông Đồng Nai (19%).
	– Các nguồn năng lượng khác (sức gió, thủy triều, năng lượng mặt trời) ở	0,25

	nước ta rất dồi dào cho phép đa dạng hóa ngành điện lực.
	nước ta rất dồi dào cho phép đa dạng hóa ngành điện lực.

3

	* Thế mạnh về kinh tế – xã hội:	0,25
	– Nhu cầu điện năng của nước ta ngày càng lớn (cho sản xuất và sinh hoạt).	0,25

	– Nhà nước có chính sách đầu từ phát triển ngành điện. Nguồn vốn đầu tư cho	0,25

	ngành điện ngày càng lớn.
	ngành điện ngày càng lớn.
	– Ngành điện đã xây dựng được một hệ thống cơ sở vật chất kĩ thuật phục vụ	0,25

	cho phát điện, truyền tải điện và phân phối điện đến khắp mọi miền đất nước.

	– Các nhân tố khác: tiến bộ khoa học kĩ thuật, công nghệ, nguồn nhân lực, xu	0,25
		0,25
	thế hội nhập và các nguồn lực bên ngoài… có nhiều thuận lợi.

IV.b.	Theo chương trình Nâng cao.
(2,0	Trình bày sự phát triển của công nghiệp dầu khí ở nước ta. Giải thích tại	2,0
điểm)	sao trong quá trình công nghiệp hoá, công nghiệp năng lượng phải luôn	2,0
điểm)
	“đi trước một bước”?

	* Sự *phát triển của công nghiệp dầu khí* ở *nước ta:*
	– Nước ta có tiềm năng lớn để phát triển công nghiệp dầu khí: trữ lượng dầu	0,25
	mỏ khoảng vài tỉ tấn và hàng trăm tỉ m³ khí tập trung ở các bể trầm tích chứa	0,25

	dầu ngoài thềm lục địa.
	– Khai thác dầu khí ở nước ta được hình thành từ năm 1986, sản lượng tăng
		0,25
	liên tục và đạt hơn 18,5 triệu tấn năm 2005.	0,25
	liên tục và đạt hơn 18,5 triệu tấn năm 2005.
	– Từ năm 1995 khí đồng hành được sử dụng để sản xuất nhiệt điện, phân đạm.	0,25
		0,25
	– Công nghiệp lọc hóa dầu ra đời với nhà máy lọc dầu Dung Quất (Quảng	0,25

	Ngãi) có công suất thiết kế 6,5 triệu tấn/năm.
	Ngãi) có công suất thiết kế 6,5 triệu tấn/năm.
	* Trong quá trình công nghiệp hóa, công nghiệp năng lượng phải đi trước

	*một bước vì:*	0,25
	– Công nghiệp năng lượng là động lực cho các ngành kinh tế và được coi như	0,25

	cơ sở hạ tầng quan trọng nhất trong toàn bộ cơ cấu hạ tầng sản xuất.
	– Thúc đẩy sự phát triển của tất cả các ngành kinh tế, nhất là công nghiệp.	0,25
		0,25
	– Công nghiệp năng lượng thu hút hàng loạt ngành công nghiệp sử dụng nhiều

	năng lượng như luyện kim màu, chế biến kim loại, chế biến thực phẩm, hóa	0,25
	chất, dệt… nên có khả năng tạo vùng rất lớn.
	– Đáp ứng nhu cầu tiêu dùng của người dân, nâng cao trình độ phát triển của

	xã hội và là một trong những tiêu chí phản ánh trình độ phát triển của một	0,25
	quốc gia.

	ĐIỂM TOÀN BÀI THI: I + II + III + IV.a (hoặc IV.b) = 10,00 điểm

	——— Hết ———

4

June 15, 2019

Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

(Nếu là đề cương nhiều công thức nên mọi người nên tải về để xem tránh mất công thức)

Đề cương liên quan: Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

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Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

Câu	Ý	Nội dung	Điểm

PHẦN CHUNG CHO TẤT CẢ THÍ SINH (8,0 điểm)

I	1 Trình bày những biểu hiện suy giảm và các biện pháp bảo vệ		1,00
*(2,0 đ)*		đa dạng sinh học ở nước ta
		a) Những biểu hiện suy giảm
		Suy giảm về số lượng loài, các kiểu hệ sinh thái và nguồn gen quý hiếm.	0,25
		b) Biện pháp bảo vệ
		– Xây dựng và mở rộng hệ thống vườn quốc gia, các khu bảo tồn	0,25
		thiên nhiên.
		– Ban hành Sách đỏ Việt Nam nhằm bảo vệ nguồn gen động, thực vật	0,25
		quý hiếm khỏi nguy cơ tuyệt chủng.
		– Quy định việc khai thác để đảm bảo sử dụng lâu dài các nguồn lợi	0,25
		sinh vật của đất nước.

2 Chứng minh dân số nước ta còn tăng nhanh. Điều đó gây khó khăn		1,00
	như thế nào cho sự phát triển kinh tế – xã hội của đất nước ?

	a) Chứng minh dân số nước ta còn tăng nhanh
	– Tốc độ gia tăng dân số tự nhiên ở mức cao, tuy đã giảm trong những	0,25
	năm gần đây nhưng vẫn còn chậm (dẫn chứng).
	– Do quy mô dân số đông nên mỗi năm dân số nước ta vẫn tăng thêm	0,25
	trung bình hơn 1 triệu người.
	b) Khó khăn
	– Làm giảm tốc độ tăng trưởng kinh tế, hạn chế khả năng tích luỹ để	0,25
	tái sản xuất mở rộng…
	– Tạo ra sức ép rất lớn đối với vấn đề việc làm, giáo dục, y tế, chất lượng	0,25
	cuộc sống…

II	1 Trình bày cơ cấu công nghiệp theo ngành ở nước ta. Tại sao cần phải		1,50
*(3,0 đ*)		phát triển các ngành công nghiệp trọng điểm ?
		a) Cơ cấu công nghiệp theo ngành
		– Được thể hiện ở tỉ trọng giá trị sản xuất của từng ngành (nhóm ngành)	0,25
		trong toàn bộ hệ thống các ngành công nghiệp.
		– Tương đối đa dạng (3 nhóm ngành gồm 29 ngành công nghiệp).	0,25

1

	– Đang nổi lên một số ngành công nghiệp trọng điểm (năng lượng,	0,25
	chế biến lương thực – thực phẩm, dệt – may…).
	– Có sự chuyển dịch theo hướng tăng tỉ trọng công nghiệp chế biến;	0,25
	giảm tỉ trọng công nghiệp khai thác và sản xuất, phân phối điện,
	khí đốt, nước.
	b) Lí do phải phát triển các ngành công nghiệp trọng điểm
	– Khai thác có hiệu quả các thế mạnh (tự nhiên, kinh tế – xã hội).	0,25
	– Thúc đẩy các ngành kinh tế khác phát triển và mang lại hiệu quả cao	0,25
	về kinh tế, xã hội, môi trường.

2 Phân tích thế mạnh về tự nhiên để phát triển kinh tế ở Đồng bằng		1,50
	sông Cửu Long. Vấn đề quan trọng hàng đầu trong việc sử dụng
	hợp lí và cải tạo tự nhiên ở đây là gì ? Tại sao ?

	a) Các thế mạnh về tự nhiên để phát triển kinh tế
	– Diện tích rộng lớn với nhiều loại đất (đặc biệt là dải đất phù sa ngọt	0,25
	dọc sông Tiền, sông Hậu) thuận lợi cho sản xuất nông nghiệp.
	– Khí hậu mang tính chất cận xích đạo; mạng lưới sông ngòi, kênh rạch	0,25
	chằng chịt tạo điều kiện để phát triển nông nghiệp, giao thông…
	– Tài nguyên sinh vật phong phú, nhất là rừng (rừng ngập mặn,	0,25
	rừng tràm) và cá, chim.
	– Các thế mạnh khác: nguồn lợi hải sản, khoáng sản (than bùn, đá vôi,	0,25
	dầu khí)…

Nêu vấn đề quan trọng hàng đầu trong việc sử dụng hợp lí, cải tạo tự nhiên và giải thích

		– Vấn đề quan trọng hàng đầu ở đây là thuỷ lợi, đặc biệt là nước ngọt						0,25
		vào mùa khô.
		– Nguyên nhân chủ yếu là cần phải có nước ngọt để thau chua, rửa mặn						0,25
		do đất bị nhiễm phèn, nhiễm mặn.

III	1	Vẽ biểu đồ						2,00
*(3,0 đ*)
*(3,0 đ*)		* Yêu cầu
		– Chọn dạng biểu đồ miền và vẽ chính xác.
		– Đảm bảo khoảng cách năm.
		– Có tên biểu đồ và chú giải.
		a) Xử lí số liệu						0,50
			Cơ cấu khối lượng vận chuyển phân theo loại hàng hóa (%)

			Năm	2000	2003	2005	2007
			Loại hàng
			Tổng số	100,0	100,0	100,0	100,0

			– Hàng xuất khẩu	24,9	20,9	25,9	25,2

			– Hàng nhập khẩu	42,4	39,9	38,8	38,6

			– Hàng nội địa	32,7	39,2	35,3	36,2

2

b) Vẽ biểu đồ

1,50

CƠ CẤU KHỐI LƯỢNG VẬN CHUYỂN

PHÂN THEO LOẠI HÀNG HÓA

	2 Nhận xét và giải thích		1,00

		a) Nhận xét
		– Cơ cấu khối lượng vận chuyển phân theo loại hàng hoá có sự thay đổi,	0,25
		nhưng không lớn.
		– Sự thay đổi diễn ra theo hướng tăng tỉ trọng hàng nội địa và	0,25
		hàng xuất khẩu; giảm tỉ trọng hàng nhập khẩu (dẫn chứng).
		b) Giải thích
		– Do sản xuất trong nước phát triển và chính sách đẩy mạnh xuất khẩu	0,25
		nên tỉ trọng hàng nội địa và hàng xuất khẩu tăng.
		– Tuy vẫn chiếm tỉ trọng lớn nhất nhưng do khối lượng hàng nhập khẩu	0,25
		tăng chậm hơn so với hai loại hàng trên nên tỉ trọng giảm.

II. PHẦN RIÊNG (2,0 điểm)

IV.a	Theo chương trình Chuẩn (2,0 điểm)
*(2,0 đ)*		Trình bày những thay đổi trong việc tổ chức lãnh thổ nông nghiệp	2,00
		ở nước ta. Tại sao Đông Nam Bộ trở thành vùng chuyên canh cây
		công nghiệp lớn nhất trong cả nước ?

		a) Những thay đổi trong việc tổ chức lãnh thổ nông nghiệp
		– Tăng cường chuyên môn hoá sản xuất, phát triển các vùng	0,25
		chuyên canh quy mô lớn.
		– Đẩy mạnh đa dạng hoá nông nghiệp, đa dạng hoá kinh tế nông thôn.	0,25
		– Kinh tế trang trại có bước phát triển mới.	0,25
		– Kinh tế trang trại thúc đẩy sản xuất nông – lâm nghiệp và thuỷ sản	0,25
		theo hướng sản xuất hàng hoá.
		b) Giải thích Đông Nam Bộ trở thành vùng chuyên canh cây công nghiệp
		lớn nhất trong cả nước

3

		– Thuận lợi về tự nhiên:
		+ Địa hình tương đối bằng phẳng, đất đai màu mỡ (nhất là đất badan)	0,25
		thích hợp cho việc phát triển cây công nghiệp trên quy mô lớn.
		+ Khí hậu cận xích đạo, nguồn nước phong phú thuận lợi để phát triển	0,25
		các cây công nghiệp.
		– Thuận lợi về kinh tế – xã hội:
		+ Nguồn lao động dồi dào, có trình độ và kinh nghiệm sản xuất,	0,25
		năng động trong cơ chế thị trường…
		+ Cơ sở vật chất – kĩ thuật khá hoàn thiện, chính sách khuyến khích	0,25
		phát triển cây công nghiệp, thị trường, vốn đầu tư…

IV.b	Theo chương trình Nâng cao (2,0 điểm)
*(2,0 đ)*		So sánh chuyên môn hoá sản xuất nông nghiệp giữa Đồng bằng	2,00
		sông Hồng và Đồng bằng sông Cửu Long. Tại sao giữa hai vùng
		lại có sự khác nhau về chuyên môn hoá ?

So sánh chuyên môn hoá sản xuất nông nghiệp giữa Đồng bằng sông Hồng và Đồng bằng sông Cửu Long

Giống nhau:

+ Lúa chất lượng cao, cây ăn quả, cây công nghiệp ngắn ngày.	0,25
+ Gia súc, gia cầm và thuỷ sản.	0,25
– Khác nhau:
+ Đồng bằng sông Hồng còn trồng cây vụ đông, chăn nuôi bò sữa.	0,25
+ Đồng bằng sông Cửu Long phát triển mạnh chăn nuôi vịt, thuỷ sản	0,25
(tôm, cá tra, cá ba sa…).
b) Giải thích sự khác nhau về chuyên môn hoá giữa hai vùng
– Đồng bằng sông Hồng:
+ Khí hậu nhiệt đới ẩm gió mùa với một mùa đông lạnh tạo điều kiện	0,25
phát triển cây vụ đông.
+ Nhu cầu lớn về thực phẩm (trong đó có sữa) của các đô thị	0,25
(Hà Nội, Hải Phòng…).
– Đồng bằng sông Cửu Long:
+ Nguồn thức ăn phong phú cho chăn nuôi gia cầm, nhất là vịt	0,25
(nuôi vịt chạy đồng).
+ Có nhiều diện tích mặt nước để nuôi trồng thuỷ sản trên quy mô lớn.	0,25

ĐIỂM TOÀN BÀI THI : I + II + III + IV.a (hoặc IV.b) = 10,00 điểm

——— Hết ———

4

June 15, 2019

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

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Đề cương liên quan: Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 5

[toc]

Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

Chọn một từ có trọng âm chính ở vị trí khác so với các từ còn lại, từ câu 1 đến 5
Câu 1:		B. expectation	C. influential	D. opportunity
	A. temperament
Câu 2:	A. refusal		C. employment	D. redundant
		B. government
Câu 3:	A. believe	B. occasion	C. improvement
				D. interest
Câu 4:		B. industrial	C. develop	D. activity
	A. interfere
Câu 5:	A. extremely	B. co-operate	C. necessity
				D. necessary

Chọn một câu thích hợp nhất được tạo ra từ những từ /cụm từ gợi ý sau, từ câu 6 đến 10 Câu 6: Factory / close down / account / economic depression.//

The factory had to close down on account of the economic depression.

The factory was closed down on account of the economic depression.

The factory had to close down on account for the economic depression.

The factory had to close down on account for economic depression.

Câu 7: the author / released / eared / last year / the book / a lot of money.//

Released last year, the author earned the book a lot of money.

Released last year, the book earned the author a lot of money.

The author released the book last year a lot of money earned.

The released book last year earned the author a lot of money.

Câu 8: classical music / speed / plant / grow.//

Many types of classical music speed plants’ growth.

Many classical music speed plant growth.

Many types of classical music speed plants to grow.

Many types of classical music speed plant growth.

Câu 9: British / American / culture / time / see / valuable commodity.//

British and American cultures see time as a valuable commodity.

British and American culture, time is seen as a valuable commodity.

In British and American culture, time sees as a valuable commodity.

In British and American culture, time is seen as a valuable commodity.

Câu 10: sport / serious / expensive business / hour / training.//

Sport is a serious and expensive business of hours of daily training.

Sport is a serious and expensive business involving hours of daily training.

Sport is a serious and expensive business involving hour of daily training.

Sport is serious, expensive business involving hours of daily training.

Chọn một từ (cụm từ) gạch chân cần phải sửa, từ câu 11 đến 15

Câu 11: Drug addition has resulted of many destroyed careers, and expulsions from school or college.

A B C D

Câu 12: A future system of solid waste managements should begin with reduction in the amount of waste.

A B C D

Câu 13: A mosquito is filled with blood is carrying twice its own body weight.

A B C D

Câu 14: A desire to eradicate irregular spelling in English can trace back to the sixteenth century.

A B C D

Câu 15: Because not food is as nutritious for a baby as its mother’s milk. Many women are returning to the practice of breast feeding.

		A	B		C	D
Chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) điền vào chỗ trống để hoàn thành câu, từ câu 16 đến 46
Câu 16: Fortunately, the demonstration __________ to be quite peaceful.
	A. turned out		B. turned into	C. turned up	D. turned off
Câu 17: “How much do you earn, Joe?” – “I’d __________.”
	A. prefer not say		B. better not to say	C. rather not say	D. rather don’t say
Câu 18: The traffic in town was very __________ and I arrived home earlier than expected.
	A. weak		B. little	C. few	D. light
Câu 19: The witness’s account was not ___________ with the facts.
	A. matched		B. reliable	C. confirmed	D. consistent
Câu 20: He is very ill, and the doctors are not sure whether he will ___________ it through the night.
	A. make		B. last	C. endure	D. survive
Câu 21: ___________ you have the money in your account, you can withdraw up to $100 a day.
	A. Unless		B. Although	C. Provided that	D. As soon as

1

Câu 22: I suggest we ___________ outside the cinema tomorrow at 8:30.
	A. meet	B. met	C. will meet	D. meeting
Câu 23: I hope we will be able to avoid ___________ anyone.
	A. disappoint	B. disappointment	C. disappointing	D. disappointed
Câu 24: Is he really ___________ to judge a brass band contest?
	A. skillful	B. efficient	C. competent	D. capable
Câu 25: No matter how angry he was, he would never ___________ to violence.
	A. exert	B. resort	C. resolve	D. recourse

Câu 26: The move to a different environment had brought about a significant ___________ in Mary’s state of mind.

	A. influence	B. impact	C. change	D. effect
Câu 27: His house is nothing out of the __________; it’s just an average five-room house.
	A. typical	B. usual	C. normal	D. ordinary
Câu 28: The school __________ a system of monthly tests in place of an annual exam.
	A. adopted	B. took	C. collected	D. gathered
Câu 29: “I think that the youth are high-flying but inexperienced.” – “____________”
	A. Are you kidding me?		B. There’s no doubt about it.
	C. Certainly.		D. It’s nice of you to say so.

Câu 30: “What do you think of your new book-keeper?” – “He works __________ his figures never need __________.”

A. so efficient that / checking	B. so efficiently that / to be checked
C. such an efficient that / to be checked	D. such efficiently that / to check

Câu 31: It was a horrible ride through pouring rain. _________ he had a puncture and for the last hour had to push the bicycle.

A. Even so		B. In fact
C. To make matter worse		D. As a matter of fact

Câu 32: All through his life he remained _________ resentful of the way he had been abandoned by his parents as a child.

A. fully	B. bitterly	C. completely	D. seriously
Câu 33: “Do you still live there?” – “No, __________. We’ve moved to a new house.”
A. not yet	B. not now	C. I do not live	D. any longer
Câu 34: I’m not particular. I’ll wear __________ of your dresses that fits me.
A. that one	B. which one	C. anyone	D. some one
Câu 35: It is imperative that this letter __________ immediately.
A. were sent	B. send	C. be sent	D. sent
Câu 36: The pub was so crowded that he could __________ get to the bar.
A. quite	B. almost	C. barely	D. merely
Câu 37: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted ___________ a good answer.
A. came up to	B. came up for	C. came out of	D. came up with
Câu 38: I’ve had this cold for a week now. I just don’t seem to be able to shake it __________.
A. up	B. out	C. over	D. off

Câu 39: It is not surprising that he became a writer because he always longed to see his name __________.

in edition B. in letters C. in print D. in type

Câu 40: Could you stand _________ for me and teach my English class tomorrow morning, John?

	A. in	B. up		C. down	D. out
Câu 41: Can you _________ out the answer to number 2?
	A. work	B. check		C. go	D. leave
Câu 42: The complaints he received were like water off a duck’s ___________.
	A. feather	B. wings		C. back	D. body
Câu 43: “Don’t forget to do as I have told you.” – “____________.”
	A. No, I will remember	B. Yes, I will		C. Yes, I won’t	D. No, I won’t
Câu 44: “How long does it take to get to the City Library from here?” – “_____________.”
	A. You can go there by bus			B. Yes, it’s a long way
	C. I am sorry. I don’t know			D. It isn’t far
Câu 45: We can form a negative verb by adding the prefix ________ to the verb “lead”.
	A. mis-	B. dis-		C. un-	D. im-
Câu 46: “Your parents must be proud of your result at school.” – “______________.”
	A. Sorry to hear that		B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging
	C. Of course		D. I am glad you like it

2

Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống, từ câu 47 đến 55

According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-off and landings you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alterative exit and count the rows of seat between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary

In the even that you are forewarned of the possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane come to complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew command and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are fully inflated and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage

Câu 47: What is the main topic of the passage?

Guidelines for increasing aircraft passengers survival C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft

Airline industry accident statistics D. Safety instructions in air travel

Câu 48: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _________?
	A. before locating the exits	B. in an emergency
	C. if smoke is in the cabin	D. before take-off
Câu 49: According to the passage, airline travelers should keep their feet flat on the floor _________.
	A. during take-off and landings	B. throughout the flight
	C. only if an accident is possible	D. especially during landings
Câu 50: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off			?
	A. the ones with counted rows of seats between them	B. the ones that can be found in the dark
	C. the two closest to the passenger’s seat	D. the nearest one

Câu 51: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they __________.

	A. read airline safety statistics		B. wear a safety belt
	C. keep their heads low		D. don’t smoke in or near a plane
Câu 52: Airline passengers are to do all of the following EXCEPT __________.
	A. carry personal belongings in an emergency		B. fasten their seat belt before take-off
	C. locate the nearest exit		D. ask questions about safety
Câu 53: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to _________.
	A. evade	B. abscond	C. vacate	D. forestall
Câu 54: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closes in meaning to _________.
	A. lifted	B. extended	C. assembled	D. expanded
Câu 55: What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss?
	A. How to recover your luggage		B. When to return to the aircraft
	C. Where to go to continue your trip		D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft

Chọn một câu gần nghĩa nhất với câu đã cho, từ câu 56 đến 60

Câu 56: He never suspected that she was a witch.

What he thought was she was not a witch.
At no time did he suspect that she was a witch.

He used to think she was not a witch.

Never has he suspect she was a witch.

Câu 57: If only you told me the truth about the theft.

Only if you had told me the truth about the theft.
Had you had told me the truth, there wouldn’t have been the theft.
You only told me the truth if there was a theft.
You should have told me the truth about the theft.

Câu 58: The demand was so great that they had to print the book immediately.

So great the demand was that they had to reprint the book immediately.
So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
So great was the demand so they had to reprint the book immediately.
So great the demand was, they had to reprint the book immediately

Câu 59: It is certain that the new cuts will worry the staff.

The new cuts certainly worry the staff.
The new cuts are bound to worry the staff.

The new cuts will be bound to worry the staff.

The new cuts will be certainly worry the staff.

Câu 60: The minister’s popularity suffered as a result of the scandal.

The scandal influenced on the minister’s popularity. B. The scandal had a negative effect on the minister’s popularity.
The scandal had bad effect to the minister’s popularity. D. The scandal effected the minister’s popularity.

Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống, từ câu 61 đến 70

In the very distant geological past all animals were aquatic. The very first vertebrates, or animals with backbones, of which we have any fossil record, lived in the water. These vertebrates, the fish, were adapted to underwater living. Their streamlined bodies

3

were covered with scales to reduce surface friction: they had muscular tails so that they could swim swiftly in such a dense medium as water; and they were endowed with gills for breathing underwater.

Descendants of fish-type ancestors crossed the seashore barrier and accommodated themselves to life on land. As amphibians, they possessed limbs instead of fins and lungs instead of gills. But they never became completely free of the bonds that tied them to the water; even today many amphibians return to the water to lay their eggs.

Millions of years after the first clumsy amphibians crawled over the land, newer types of land dwellers appeared; these animals gave rise to the present-day reptiles and mammals. They were more completely converted for land dwelling, with bodies and biological activities far different from those of fish. With these special adaptations, mammals have been able to colonize the

woods and meadows, the deserts and high mountains, often far removed from the sea.

Câu 61: Of the animals with backbones, the first to appear were _________.

A. fish

B. amphibians

C. birds

D. mammals

Câu 62: Fish are suited to underwater life because of their _________.

A. gills

B. All of the answers

C. streamlines shape

D. scales

Câu 63: In converting to land life, animals acquired ___________.

A. tails

B. lungs

C. warm blood

D. eyes

Câu 64: The word “descendants” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. grandchildren

B. ancestors

C. descenders

D. offspring

Câu 65: The passage suggests that the first amphibians used their limbs to __________.

A. jump

B. run

C. swim

D. crawl

Câu 66: An example of an amphibian’s incomplete adaptation to land life is its _________.

A. need to keep its skin wet

B. return to water to lay eggs

C. inability to breath air

D. scales-covered skin

Câu 67: Animals found desert living possible only __________.

A. when they were fully adapted

B. after they could walk on two feet

C. when they became amphibious

D. if they migrated to the sea periodically

Câu 68: The seashore was a barrier for descendants of fish type creatures in that _________.

A. crossing it required bodily changes

B. every attempt to cross it ended in death

C. the land once rose much higher above the sea

D. once they crossed there was no return

Câu 69: The word “They” in paragraph3 refers to __________.

A. reptiles and mammals

B. animals

C. amphibians

D. land dwellers

Câu 70: The adaptation process described in the article was accomplished __________.

A. by the receding of the seas

B. through biological changes

C. over millions of years and through biological changes

D. over millions of years

Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống, từ câu 71 đến 80

Have you ever asked yourself what you are working for? If you have ever had the time to consider this taboo question, or put it to others in moments of weakness or confidentiality, you (71)_________ well have heard some or all of the (72)_________. It’s the money, of course, some say with a smile, as if explaining something to a child. Or it’s the satisfaction of a task well-done, the sense of achievement behind the clinching of an important (73)_________. I worked as a bus conductor once, and I can’t say I (74)_________ the same as I staggered along the swaying gangway trying to (75)_________ out tickets without falling over to someone’s lap. It’s the company of other people perhaps, but if that is the (76)_________, what about farmers? Is it the conversation in the farmyard that keeps them captivated by the job? Work is power and sense of status say those (77)_________

have either attained these elusive goals, or feel aggrieved that nobody has yet recognized their leadership qualities. Or we can blame it all on someone else, the family or the taxman, I suspect, and I say this under my breath, that most of us work rather as Mr. Micawber lived, hoping for something to (78)_________ up. We’ll win the pools, and tell the boss what we really think. We’ll scrape together the (79)_________ and open that little shop we have always dreamed of, or go round the world, or spend more time in the garden. One day, we’ll get that (80)_________ we deserve, but until then at least we have something to do. And we are so busy doing it that we won’t have time to wonder why.

Câu 71:

A. might

B. will

C. should

D. can

Câu 72:

A. below

C. rest

D. latter

B. following

Câu 73:

B. job

C. engagement

D. position

A. deal

Câu 74:

A. enjoyed

C. wished

D. hoped

B. felt

Câu 75:

A. issue

B. turn

D. make

C. give

Câu 76:

B. one

C. question

D. problem

A. case

Câu 77:

A. may

C. must

D. people

B. who

Câu 78:

A. move

B. end

C. ease

D. turn

Câu 79:

A. opportunities

B. riches

C. resources

D. money

Câu 80:

B. ambition

C. vocation

D. station

A. promotion

4

5

June 15, 2019

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 5

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 5

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

(Nếu là đề cương nhiều công thức nên mọi người nên tải về để xem tránh mất công thức)

Đề cương liên quan: Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 4

[toc]

Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 5

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh

PRACTICE TEST 5

Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to preserve them.
Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic, which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or years. The team of 45 divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck’s treasure does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all

Question 1: What is the main idea of this passage?

Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.

Question 2: The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?

broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow

Question 3: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “legitimate”?

justified B. innocent C. prudent D. fundamental

Question 4: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to

do archaeological research
put treasures in a museum
be a diver
shun treasure-seeking salvagers

Question 5: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?

The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.

Question 6: The author uses the word “services” to refer to which of the following?

cups B. sets C. containers D. decorations

Question 7: The author uses the phrase “mint condition” to describe

something perfect B. something significant
something tolerant D. something magical

Question 8: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT

wine bottles B. silver tea services
American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware

Question 9: The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?

scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through

Question 10: The second and third paragraphs are an example of

chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank.

You can make life more difficult for thieves by (11) ________ your wallet in an inside pocket instead of a back pocket. But make sure that you still have it if someone bumps into you in a (12) ________. Most pickpockets are very skillful. Never let your handbag out of your (13) ________ On public transport, (14)________ hold of it. You are also (15) ________ to take travelers’ cheques rather than cash when you go abroad, and to use cash dispensers which are on (16) ________ streets, or are well lit at night.

A quarter of all crimes are car thefts or thefts of things from cars, like radio and cassette players. If your car is (17) ________, you may not get it back. One in four are never found, and even if it is, it may be badly (18) ________. Always lock all doors and windows, and think about fitting a car alarm too. If you are buying a new radio cassette player, it is (19) ________ choosing one that is security-code or removable by the driver. These precautions will help to (20) ________ thieves.

Question 11: A. taking B. holding C. carrying D. bringing

Question 12: A. mass B. band C. crowd D. group

Question 13: A. view B. sight C. visibility D. vision

Question 14: A. keep B. catch C. take D. have

Question 15: A. suggested B. told C. informed D. advised

Question 16: A. main B. important C. principal D. major

Question 17: A. robbed B. burgled C. stolen D. hijacked

Question 18: A. hurt B. damaged C. spoilt D. injured

Question 19: A. beneficial B. practical C. worthwhile D. sensible

Question 20: A. put off B. put down C. put out D. put back

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes unfinished sentences.

Question 21: We didn’t want to say ________ him in the meeting. He was too good to us.

to B. for C. with D. against

Question 22: How long have you attended your ________ training?

military B. militarize C. militarism D. militaristic

Question 23: Thanks to the help of his teacher and classmates, he made great _______ and passed the end-term exam with high marks.

work B. progress C. experience D. fortunes

Question 24: Hemingway used the experience and knowledge ________ during World War I as the material for his best-known novel For Whom the Bell Tolls

gain B. gaining C. gained D. to gain

Question 25: When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he ________ his mother for help.

fell in with B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell back on

Question 26: Tessa was determined to become wealthy and to that _____ she started her own company.

view B. aim C. end D. object

Question 27: I can’t understand why you have to make such a _____ about something so unimportant.

mess B. stir C. fuss D. bother

Question 28: “Is dinner ready?” “No, mother is ________ it ready now.”

doing B. cooking C. getting D. preparing

Question 29: Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and ____ Prince Rainier of Monaco.

as the wife of B. to be the wife of
she was the wife of D. the wife of

Question 30: You look tired. ___________ hard all day?

Have you been working B. Did you work
Are you working D. Do you work

Question 31: We watch the cat_______ the tree.

climb B. climbed C. had climbed D. was climbing

Question 32: If only motorists _________ drive more carefully.

might B. shall C. would D. should

Question 33: When it is very hot, you may _____ the top button of your shirt.

untie B. undress C. unwrap D. undo

Question 34: The police are looking for a man of ___________ height.

medium B. extra C. tall D. special

Question 35: What on earth is going ________ in there?

round B. down C. up D. on

Question 36: May I have _________ more meat, please?

a little B. small C. another D. a few

Question 37: My sister Jo is ________ person in our family

the shortest B. the shorter C. the most short D. shorter

Question 38: “How does the washing machine work?” “________”

Not often B. Too much C. A little D. Like this

Question 39: I have no brothers or sisters. I’m ______ child.

an only B. a sole C. a unique D. a single

Question 40: They ______ because it is a national holiday.

don’t wok B. won’t working C. haven’t worked D. aren’t working

Question 41: “Never say that again,______?”

don’t you B. will you C. do you D. won’t you

Question 42: Ann __________ thought and didn’t hear him call.

was lost after B. lost in C. was losing in D. was lost in

Question 43: You have to pay more if you have _____ baggage.

enough B. excess C. many D. several

Question 44: The pair of jeans I bought didn’t fit me, so I went to the store and asked for ______.

another jeans B. others ones C. another pair D. the other ones

Question 45: She was asked to give a full __________ of her camera when she reported it stolen.

account B. detail C. description D. information

Question 46: “More coffee? Anybody?” – “________”

I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. B. I’d love to
Yes, please D. It’s right, I think

Question 47: “Oh, I’m really sorry!”- “________.”

It was a pleasure. B. That’s all right.
Thanks. D. Yes, why?

Question 48: “Can I leave early?” “________.”

Yes, that’s fine B. Before 4.30 C. Not at all D. You’re welcome

Question 49: You didn’t think I was being serious, did you, Brian? It was a joke. I was pulling your _______. That’s all.

thumb B. hair C. toe D. leg

Question 50: I love working as a _________ in England better than an interpreter here.

tour specialized guide B. specialized tour guide
tour guide specialized D. guide specialized tour

Choose the underlined words or phrases that are not correct

Question 51: When the silkworm gets through to lay its eggs, it dies.

A B C D

Question 52: The high protein content of various strains of alfalfa plants, along with the

A

characteristically long root system that enables them to survive long droughts, make them

B C

particularly valuable in arid countries

D

Question 53: A fiber-optic cable across the Pacific went into service in April 1989, link the United

A B C D

States and Japan.

Question 54: The Gray Wolf, a species reintroduced into their native habitat in Yellowstone National

A B

park, has begun to breed naturally there.

C D

Question 55: Those of you who signed up for Dr Daniel’s anthropology class should get their books as

A B C D

soon as possible.

Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

In the folklore of the Navajo people, it was said that frogs and toads fell from the sky when it rained. The phenomenon that gave rise to this belief involved the spadefoot toad, which remains dormant beneath the Sonoran Desert of Arizona, avoiding the heat and drought for as long as eight or nine months. With the onset of summer thunderstorms, however, the toads respond to the vibrations of drumming raindrops and emerge, as if fallen from the sky with the rain, to begin their brief and frantic, mating season.
The male spadefoot sits in a muddy pool and fills the night with his calls, attempting to attract a female of the same species. Once a female joins him, she may lay as many as 1,000 eggs in the small pool of life-sustaining rainwater. From that point it’s a race against the elements for the young, who must hatch and mature with remarkable speed before the pool evaporates beneath the searing desert sun. As the pool grows smaller and smaller, it becomes thick with tadpoles fighting for survival in the mud, threatened not only by loss of their watery nest but also by devouring insects and animals. In as few as nine days after fertilization of the eggs, those lucky enough to survive develop through each tadpole stage and finally emerge as fully formed toads. After gorging themselves on insects, the young toads, like their parents, burrow underground, where they will lie dormant awaiting the next summer’s storms.

Question 56: What does the passage mainly discuss?

Navajo folklore
Weather in the Sonoran Desert of Arizona
The habits of the spadefoot toad
The mating rituals of the male spadefoot toad

Question 57: According to the passage, the spadefoot toad ______

is dormant for as long as nine months
reproduces during winter rains
eats leaves and grasses
develops very slowly

Question 58: Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the spadefoot toad?

They are active only three or four months a year
The female lays her eggs in pools of water
The searing desert sun is their only enemy
many tadpoles die before they reach maturity

Question 59: It can be concluded from the passage that ______

spadefoot toads could exist for years without rain
the Navajo legends are based on acute observations
spadefoot toads are well adapted to their environment
the chances of a tadpole’s becoming an adult are very great

Question 60: The author is most likely a ______

botanist B. biologist C. chemist D. geographer

Question 61: This passage is most likely followed a passage on ______

weather patterns in the Sonorant Desert B. methods of reproduction among insects
dwellings of the Navajo people D. other desert animals

Question 62: The word “frantic” is closest in meaning to ______

lengthy B. excited C. froglike D. dangerous

Question 63: The word “elements” is closest in meaning to______

weather B. time C. environment D. thunderstorms

Question 64: The word “gorging” is closest in meaning to ______

mating B. digging C. enjoying D. devouring

Question 65: Where in the passage is the geographic location that the spadefoot toads inhabit mentioned?

line 1 B. line 3-4 C. line 9 D. line 16-17

Choose the word that has the main stress placed differently from that of the others.

Question 66: A. employee B. refugee C. committee D. referee

Question 67: A. terminate B. detriment C. different D. determine

Question 68: A. benevolent B. profitable C. essential D. equivalent

Question 69: A. educational B. instructional C. miraculous D. conventional

Question 70: A. physiology B. economics C. nominate D. competition

Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the printed one

Question 71: How lucky! You called me, because I tried to call you a few minutes ago and got a busy

signal.

You luckily called me, so I didn’t have to call you for a few minutes because the signal was busy.
Luckily, you called me in time, for I failed to call you a few minutes ago.
The busy signal prevented me from calling you a few minutes ago, so please call me back.
I was not lucky enough to call you a few minutes ago because I was busy.

Question 72: You must have boiled the potatoes too long.

The potatoes were not boiled long enough.
It was not long before the potatoes were boiled.
It was not necessary to boil the potatoes too long.
You had to boil the potatoes too long.

Question 73: Sarah is not usually late.

Sarah does not like to be late. B. Sarah is not likely being late.
It is not like Sarah to be late. D. It is not likely to be late for Sarah

Question 74: If I was in your shoe, I would let him go.

I suggest that you let him go.
I advise you to wear your shoes and let him go.
I would like to be in your shoe so you could let him go.
I was wearing your shoes and would like to let him go.

Question 75: The teacher will refuse to help you if he happens to know the truth.

Unless the teacher knows the truth, he will refuse to help you.
Should the teacher know the truth, he will refuse to help you.
The teacher will refuse to help you if the truth happens.
Should the teacher happen to know the truth, he won’t refuse to help you.

Question 76: From these reviews, we should see the movie, don’t you think?

I don’t think we should see the movie.
You don’t think we should see the movie, do you?
You and I are not in agreement about the reviews of the movie.
I think we should see the movie.

Question 77: “I appreciate your offering me a ride, but I have my brother’s car. Thanks anyway.”

His friend will give him a ride.
His brother will give him a ride.
He refused a ride because he will drive home.
He is grateful to get a ride with his friend.

Question 78: Someone has run off with out tickets.

Our tickets have been stolen. B. Someone has run off to get our tickets.
Our tickets has been picked up by someone. D. Someone has destroyed our tickets.

Question 79: Sue signed up for a crash course in German.

Sue enrolled in an intensive German language course.
Sue had a bad accident in German.
Sue booked a trip to German.
Sue met a German in her math course.

Question 80: The secret to success is hard work.

One must work hard to keep secrets.
Working hard ensures success.
One cannot succeed if he has secrets
If you keep your work secret, you will succeed.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	D	21	D	41	B	61	D
2	B	22	A	42	D	62	B
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	C
4	D	24	C	44	C	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	C	65	B

6	B	26	C	46	C	66	C
7	A	27	C	47	B	67	D
8	C	28	C	48	A	68	B
9	D	29	A	49	D	69	A
10	B	30	A	50	C	70	C

11	C	31	A	51	C	71	B
12	C	32	C	52	C	72	C
13	B	33	D	53	D	73	C
14	C	34	A	54	B	74	A
15	D	35	D	55	D	75	B

16	A	36	A	56	A	76	D
17	C	37	A	57	A	77	C
18	B	38	D	58	C	78	A
19	C	39	A	59	C	79	A
20	A	40	D	60	B	80	B

June 15, 2019

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 4

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh Practice test 4

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Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh

PRACTICE TEST 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 1: Jack had to skip breakfast; otherwise, he will be late for class.

A B C D

Question 2: After writing it, the essay must be duplicated by the student himself and handed in to the

A B C

department secretary before the end of the month.

D

Question 3: They are known that colds can be avoided by eating the right kind of food and taking

A B C

exercise regularly.

D

Question 4: Before the invention of the printing press, books have been all printed by hand.

A B C D

Question 5: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of

A B C D

the hereditary nature of many diseases.

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the following blanks.

The British often _____(6)_____ people by their table manners and, at the table as in other _____(7)_____ of British life, politeness and distance are priced. While it is acceptable to ask an American host for a second _____(8)_____, in England you should absolutely wait _____(9)_____ you are being offered. It is considered impolite not to _____(10)_____ what is on your plate. Also watch what you say: the British are very distant with strangers and while they love _____(11)_____ the weather, even such as their age or whether they have any children may be _____(12)_____ too personal. Beware _____(13)_____ calling Scottish or Irish people “English”. Absolute no-nos are politics and religion, as they are, incidentally, in the United States. On both sides of the Atlantic, it is never a good idea to engage in arguments about _____(14)_____ while sitting at the table. You should also eat at roughly the same speed as the others at the table and never start your food before your _____(15)_____ does.

Question 6: A. comment B. value C. estimate D. judge

Question 7: A. walks B. ways C. parts D. corners

Question 8: A. dish B. amount C. help D. serving

Question 9: A. before B. after C. to D. until

Question 10: A. end B. finish C. eat D. use up

Question 11: A. telling B. talking C. discussing D. arguing

Question 12: A. believed B. thought C. considered D. regarded

Question 13: A. to B. at C. for D. of

Question 14: A. neither B. either C. each D. both

Question 15: A. host B. landlord C. guest D. house owner

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

Question 16: 1. What is the main topic of the passage?

Weather variations in the desert. B. Adaptations of desert animals.
Diseased of desert animals. D. Human use of desert animals.

Question 17: According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

It helps them hide from predators.
It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.
It helps them see their young at night.
It keeps them cool at night.

Question 18: The word “maintaining” is closest in meaning to _________.

measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying

Question 19: The author uses of Grant’s gazelle as an example of

an animal with a low average temperature
an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
a desert animal with a constant body temperature

Question 20: When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day
Just after sunset D. Just after drinking

Question 21: The word “tolerate” is closest in meaning to _________.

endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce

Question 22: What causes water intoxication?

Drinking too much water very quickly. B. Drinking polluted water.
Bacteria in water. D. Lack of water.

Question 23: Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

To show how they use camels.
To contrast them to desert mammals.
To give instructions about desert survival.
To show how they have adapted to desert life.

Question 24: The word “obtain” is closest in meaning to _________.

digest B. carry C. save D. get

Question 25: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

Variation in body temperatures. B. Eating while dehydrated.
Drinking water quickly. D. Being active at night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 26: A. tourism B. atmosphere C. canister D. survival

Question 27: A. diversity B. biography C. biology D. fundamental

Question 28: A. energy B. advantage C. biomass D. arduous

Question 29: A. solar B. cycle C. indoors D. costly

Question 30: A. ceremony B. spectacular C. facility D. surprisingly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.

Question 31: She asked Janet to repeat what she had said.

“Will you please repeat what Janet said?”, she asked.
“Please repeat what Janet had said.”, she asked.
“Please repeat what you say, Janet.”, she said.
“Please repeat what you said, Janet.” , she said

Question 32: Jenny denied breaking the window.

Jenny was determined not to break the window.
Jenny said that she hadn’t broken the window.
Jenny didn’t break the window.
Jenny refused to break the window.

Question 33: I hardly know the truth about Jean’s success in the institute.

Jean’s success in the institute was not to be known.
It is difficult for Jean to be successful in the institute.
I do not know much about Jean’s success in the institute.
Jean hardly become known and successful in the institute.

Question 34: After Louie had written his composition, he handed it to his teacher.

Handed the composition to his teacher, Louie wrote it.
Having written his composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
Writing the composition, Louie handed it to his teacher.
Handing the composition, Louie had written his composition.

Question 35: It is certain that the suspect committed the crime.

The suspect was certain to commit the crime.
The suspect might have committed the crime.
Certain commitment of the crime was that of the suspect.
The suspect must have committed the crime.

Question 36: David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.

David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
David drove so fast that was very dangerous.

Question 37: People believed that the boys started the fire.

The boys were believed to have started the fire.
That the boys started the fire was believed.
It is believed that the fire was started by the boys.
It is believed that the boys started the fire.

Question 38: I had no problems at all during my trip to France.

No problems were there during my trip to France at all.
Everything went according to plan during my trip to France.
My trip to France was not at all went as planned.
No problems during my trip had I at all in France.

Question 39: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Question 40: She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.

On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted.
On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she fainted.
She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.
She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother.

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greek’s chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were opened to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as games of friendship and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities presented.

The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. . The contest coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves but also to the cities they represented.

Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true?

Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
The games were held in Greek every four years.
Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
Poems glorified the winners in songs.

Question 42: The word “elite” is closest in meaning to _______.

aristocracy B. brave C. intellectual D. muscular

Question 43: Why were the Olympic Games held?

To stop wars. B. To honor Zeus.
To crown the best athletes. D. To sing songs about the athletes.

Question 44: Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?

800 years. B. 1,200 years. C. 2,300 years. D. 2,800 years.

Question 45: What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks?

They were pacifists.
They believed athletic events were important.
They were very simple.
They couldn’t count so they used “Olympiads” for dates.

Question 46: What is the main idea of this passage?

Physical fitness was an integral part of the life of ancient Greeks.
The Greeks severely punished those who didn’t participate in physical fitness programs.
The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war

when the games were over.

Question 47: The word “deeds” is closest in meaning to _________.

accomplishments B. ancestors C. documents D. properties

Question 48: Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the

Olympics?

They must have completed military service.
They had to attend special training sessions.
They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
They had to be very religious.

Question 49: The word “halted” means mostly nearly the same as ________.

encouraged B. started C. curtailed D. fixed

Question 50: What is an “Olympiad”?

The time it took to finish the games. B. The time between games.
The time it took to finish a war. D. The time it took the athletes to train.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 51: The letter _________ me of the theft hadn’t been signed.

to accuse B. accused C. accusing D. that accuse

Question 52: Over the last few months, garages _________ the price of petrol three times.

have risen B. have put up C. raised D. have gone up

Question 53: __________ migrate long distances is well documented.

That it is birds B. That birds C. Birds that D. It is that birds

Question 54: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to my __________ in work.

neck B. nose C. head D. eyes

Question 55: Doctors have accepted that acupuncture can work for pain ___________.

release B. liberation C. killing D. relief

Question 56: She hates those who are not ___________ for appointment. She doesn’t want to wait.

punctually B. punctual C. punctuality D. punctuate

Question 57: Many lists of “Wonders of the World” ___________ during the Middle Ages.

said to be existed B. are said to exist
said to exist D. are said to have existed

Question 58: A: Could I speak to Susan please?

B: _____________ .

Talking B. Speaking C. Calling D. Answering

Question 59: Liz: Thanks a lot for assisting me in the presentation.

Jennifer: ______________ .

It was really hard work B. It’s pleasing
I was glad D. It was the least I could do

Question 60: It is difficult to ___________ identical twins ___________.

tell/ on B. speak/ out C. tell/ apart D. speak/ over

Question 61: Ivan: I have stacks of homework to do.

Kyle: _________________ !

Congratulations B. Cheers C. You poor thing D. Oh bother

Question 62: _____________ Christina is late, let’s begin without her.

Since B. Nevertheless C. However D. Consequently

Question 63: Nothing can ____________ the loss of the child.

make up with B. make up for C. do with D. come up with

Question 64: One of the __________ of this work is that you can __________ experience.

advantages/ have B. opportunities/ learn
profits/ become D. benefits/ gain

Question 65: When I called them, they didn’t answer. They pretended __________ already.

to sleep B. sleeping C. having slept D. to have been sleeping

Question 66: Laser disc provide images of ___________ either television signals or video tapes.

better than B. better quality than
better quality than those of D. better quality than of

Question 67: I haven’t got a passport, ____________ means I can’t leave my country.

which B. that C. this D. it

Question 68: Having opened the bottle, _____________ for everyone.

The drink was poured B. Mike poured the drink
Mike pouring the drink D. The drink was being poured

Question 69: No one knows how much he earns a month, but $2,500 can’t be ________off the mark.

wide B. far C. broad D. distant

Question 70: You may borrow my bike __________ you are careful with it.

even if B. as long as C. as much as D. expecting

Question 71: Barry: Were you involved in the accident?

Daniel: Yes, but I wasn’t to ___________ for it.

charge B. accuse C. blame D. apologize

Question 72: Assistant: May I help you?

Customer: ____________.

You may go B. I don’t need help C. No problem D. I’m just looking

Question 73: “Excuse me, is anybody sitting here?” _ “ _____________.”

No, thanks B. Yes, I am so glad
Sorry, the seat is taken D. Yes, yes. You can sit here

Question 74: She is ____________ polite a person to refuse.

very B. such C. too D. much

Question 75: _____________ the lesson well, Adrian couldn’t answer the teacher’s question.

Didn’t prepare B. Having prepared C. Preparing not D. Not preparing

Question 76: ____________ no proof, the judge refused to sentence him to death.

It having B. There being C. Being D. There having

Question 77: I __________ this letter while I was tidying up.

came by B. brought in C. brought back D. came across

Question 78: If you hadn’t watched that late movie last night, you ________ sleepy now.

wouldn’t have been B. might not have been
wouldn’t be D. wouldn’t have been being

Question 79: My old friend and colleague, John, __________ married.

have just got B. has just got C. just have got D. just has got

Question 80: I suggest that the doctor _________ up his mind without delay.

makes B. make C. made D. is to make

ĐÁP ÁN

1	C	21	A	41	A	61	C
2	A	22	A	42	A	62	A
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	B
4	C	24	D	44	D	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	B	65	D

6	D	26	D	46	A	66	C
7	A	27	D	47	A	67	A
8	D	28	B	48	C	68	B
9	D	29	C	49	C	69	B
10	B	30	A	50	B	70	B

11	C	31	D	51	C	71	C
12	C	32	B	52	B	72	D
13	D	33	C	53	B	73	C
14	B	34	B	54	A	74	C
15	A	35	D	55	D	75	D

16	B	36	A	56	B	76	B
17	B	37	A	57	D	77	D
18	C	38	B	58	B	78	C
19	C	39	D	59	D	79	B
20	A	40	B	60	C	80	B

June 15, 2019

Đề luyện thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2019

Đề luyện thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2019

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

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Đề cương liên quan: Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

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Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề luyện thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2019

Đề luyện thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2019

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 10.

Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (1)_______ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (2)________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (3)________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (4)________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (5)_________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

This (6)_________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (7)_________. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (8)________ how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (9)________ they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (10)________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

		By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies. Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 1: A. behind time	B. in time	C. at time	D. about time
Question 2: A. less	B. much	C. little	D. few
Question 3: A. danger	B. threat	C. risk	D. jeopardy
Question 4: A. whereas	B. or	C. because	D. so
Question 5: A. gets	B. makes	C. puts	D. brings
Question 6: A. comes	B. raises	C. results	D. rises
Question 7: A. established	B. acquired	C. arranged	D. organized
Question 8: A. in	B. on	C. at	D. to
Question 9: A. at which	B. that	C. where	D. which
Question 10: A. point	B. rate	C. level	D. extent

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 11: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much more likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.

harmful to health

beneficial to health

full of preservatives

convenient to prepare

Question 12: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the

human cell.

far-sighted views

in-depth studies

spectacular sightings

deep understanding

Question 13: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview.

small number B. class C. small amount D. hand

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Question 14: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous tourists managed to reach the top.

bringing excitement
costing a lot of money

resulting in depression
causing a lot of risks

Question 15: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.

obedient to parents B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. able to hear

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 25.

The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.

By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP

Question 16: Electrical conductivity is ______.

completely impossible for silicon
one of the key properties of most solid materials
impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water D. one of the most important properties of metals

Question 17: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.

the absence of free electrons
the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
the way its atoms bond together
its atoms with a positive charge

Question 18: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.


A. nearest to the inside		B. furthest from the inside
C. the heaviest		D. the lightest

Question 19: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ______.

electrons can flow in a single direction
the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
they lose all of their electrons
negatively charged electrons attract positive ions

Question 20: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.

A. it has free electrons			B. its charged ions are not free to move
C. its charged ions can flow easily			D. it cannot create any charged ions
Question 21: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. electrical insulators			B. electric currents
C. charged particles			D. charged ions

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Question 22: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.

only a small amount of fully charged particles
only a positive electric charge
no positive or negative electric charge
only a negative electric charge

Question 23: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______. A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive

the water contains too many neutral molecules
the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive D. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity

Question 24: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
Some materials are more conductive than others.
Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

Question 25: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

Electrical Devices
Electrical Insulators

Electrical Energy
Electrical Conductivity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ______ what they were saying.
A. bring about	B. turn up	C. make out	D. try out
Question 27: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university.			D. Meanwhile
A. Nevertheless	B. Despite	C. Although	D. Meanwhile
Question 28: Applications _____ in after 30^th April will not be considered.
A. send	B. sent	C. which sent	D. that is sent
Question 29: Sammy had worked in England for a year ______ moving to Scotland.
A. until	B. once	C. before	D. while
Question 30: The girl was used ______ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to being received	B. to receiving	C. to be receiving	D. to receive
Question 31: ______ always gives me real pleasure.
A. While arranging flowers		B. Arranging flowers
C. The flowers are arranged		D. I arrange flowers
Question 32: The theory of relativity ______ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed	B. developed	C. is developed	D. develops
Question 33: ______ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it.
A. So strong	B. No longer	C. How strong	D. Hardly ever
Question 34: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.”
John: “______”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why?		B. It’s out of the question.
C. Would you, really?		D. I’d rather you didn’t.
Question 35: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. the more heat it retains		B. the heat it retains more
C. it retains the more heat		D. more heat it retains

Question 36: Be sure not to rely too ______ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language.

A. heavily	B. numerously	C. severely	D. abundantly
Question 37: Mary: “The hat’s so beautiful. Thanks.”
Tony: “________”
A. The same to you!	B. Great idea!	C. Lucky you!	D. I’m glad you like it.
Question 38: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.
A. including	B. other than	C. outside	D. rather than
Question 39: “It’s about time you ______ your homework, Mary.”
A. will do	B. do	C. must do	D. did
Question 40: ______ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. If we had	B. Unless we had	C. If we have	D. If we had had

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Question 41: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. once offering	B. to offer	C. being offered	D. you offer
Question 42: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “______”
A. How dare you?	B. I’m afraid so.	C. Thank you.	D. Don’t mention it.
Question 43: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable	B. disappointed	C. defenseless	D. helpless
Question 44: Tom hasn’t completed the work yet and Maria hasn’t ______.
A. neither	B. either	C. also	D. too
Question 45: We could have caught the last train, but we ______ five minutes late.
A. would be	B. have been	C. are	D. were

Question 46: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ______ to visit our school next week.

are going

has had

are

is going

Question 47:

to

We received a call from the teacher ______ charge of our course. B. in C. at

on

Question 48: In my apartment there are two rooms, ______ is used as the living-room.

the largest one B. the large one
the largest of which D. the larger of which

Question 49: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ______ that she’ll be promoted next month.

very successful B. so successfully C. too successful D. too successfully

Question 50:

what

We hoped ______ they would come and give us new lectures. B. that C. which

when

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 51: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies.

What he implies is not very difficult to understand.
Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
To understand what he really means is difficult to find.

Question 52: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.

Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.
I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.
They asked me no question about resigning.
I should have changed my mind about resigning.

Question 53: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.” A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.

John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.
John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.
John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.

Question 54: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications.

Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications.

I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.
Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.

Question 55: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.

I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.
I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.
I left without remembering to lock the door.
I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.

Question 56: They arrived too late to get good seats.

Although they were late, they found some good seats.
They got good seats some time after they arrived.

As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
They had to stand for the whole show.

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Question 57: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.

Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.
As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.
Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.

Question 58: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.

It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.
There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.

The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.

Question 59: “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!” Jane shouted to the strange man.

Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.
Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
Jane plainly said that she would call the police.

Question 60: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow.

Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow.
We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow.

Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70.

A radio telescope is a radio receiver that “sees” radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light, a radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are emitted by celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules.

The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build his own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber’s first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space.

A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal point, allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals can be received and focalized.

In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-six-meter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope in the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the sun’s radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100-meter diameter telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in the state of Ohio. The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.

Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes, the unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into places like the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and ears in outer space.

By Timothy Hall, Arthur H. Milch and Denise McCormach. How to Master skills for the TOEFL iBT

Question 61: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ______.

creatures that inhabit celestial objects B. shapes and sizes of celestial objects
normal light of celestial objects D. radio waves sent out by celestial objects

Question 62: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ______.

he was an inventor B. he was an amateur radio operator C. he was an engineer D. he was an astronomer

Question 63: Grote Reber’s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ______.

he picked up signals from outer space B. he graduated from an engineering school
he experimented on the third one D. he first built one in his backyard

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Question 64:

send

The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. B. lift C. receive

select

Question 65: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results.
The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes.
The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant.
The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter.

Question 66: The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. existing	B.	moving	C. electricity flow	D. water movement
Question 67: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. places	B. radio waves		C. scientists	D. eyes and ears

Question 68: Radio waves are scientists’ eyes and ears in outer space because ______.

they can recognize who dominates the universe
they help to track only manned space missions in space
they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars D. they can help them understand more about the universe

Question 69: The focus of discussion in the passage is ______.

radio waves B. radio telescopes
radio operators D. atoms and molecules

Question 70: Originally, this passage was probably published in ______.

a business journal B. a fashion magazine
a scientific journal D. a book on environment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 71: A. conventional	B. preservative	C. reliable	D. intellectual
Question 72: A. environment	B. superstition	C. technology	D. predominance
Question 73: A. computer	B. customer	C. property	D. energy
Question 74: A. decisive	B. popular	C. impatient	D. observant
Question 75: A. occur	B. struggle	C. enlarge	D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 76: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.

A B C D Question 77: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.

A B C D

Question 78: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time with

A B C D the clients.

Question 79: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.

A B C D Question 80: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.

A B C D

———- THE END ———-

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June 15, 2019

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

Mọi ý kiến đóng góp xin gửi vào hòm thư: [email protected]

Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

Kéo xuống để Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF đầy đủ: Sau “mục lục” và “bản xem trước”

(Nếu là đề cương nhiều công thức nên mọi người nên tải về để xem tránh mất công thức)

Đề cương liên quan: Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh

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Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 1: “Send this urgent document immediately!” the officer told the soldier.

The officer ordered the soldier to deliver the urgent document instantly.

The officer advised the soldier to send the urgent document right away.
The officer requested that the soldier rush out due to the document’s urgency.
The officer recommended the soldier leave right away because of the urgent document.

Question 2: The president placed his car at my disposal as a bonus for my good work.

To get rid of the car, the president decided to sell it to me, his good worker, at a bonus price.
I was willing to drive the president’s car as a compliment for my good performance at work.

In order to praise me as a good worker, the president took me home in his own car.
To show his appreciation for my good work, the president allowed me to use his car whenever I liked.

Question 3: “Why don’t you join us for our next class reunion?” Mary said to me.

Mary strongly urged me to join them for the next class reunion.
Mary advised me not to join them for the next class reunion.
Mary cordially invited me to join them for the next class reunion.

Mary insisted on my joining them for the next class reunion.

Question 4: “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.

Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.
Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.

Question 5: The early failure of the Spanish squad in the 2014 World Cup deeply disappointed their fans.

Living up to their fans’ expectation, the Spanish squad left the 2014 World Cup so early.
The Spanish squad was terribly disappointed that their fans had to leave the 2014 World Cup so early.
That their squad left the 2014 World Cup so early was very disappointing for the Spanish sportsmen.
To the disappointment of their fans, the Spanish squad had to leave the 2014 World Cup too early.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight o’clock and take good care of their own business.

organize things inefficiently C. manage an inflexible system

have a good voyage
run faster than others

Question 7: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.

looks for B. approves of C. puts off D. attends to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 8 to 17.

Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (8)______ education and training. Increasingly, state authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply (9)______ and receive accreditation as a condition of final and continued approval.

As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are (10)______ to make property, facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to study and to graduate; (11)______ their own funds from outside sources; enter into contracts and compete for grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (12)______ one another for students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the

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system that (13)_____ Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace – an important distinctive element of the way U.S. education is organized.

Some institutions are governed (14)______ under multi-campus arrangements. These include most local public schools (governed by school districts) and many state community college and university systems. Whether single- or multi-campus, institutional corporations (15)______ by boards of citizens, both alumni and non-alumni, who are ultimately responsible for all operations. They appoint senior (16)______, such as principals, headmasters, presidents, and deans; and approve the actions taken (17)______ their name.

		From A Diverse Educational System: Structure, standards, and challenges. InfoUSA (CD version)
Question 8:	A. provided	B. provision	C. provide	D. providing
Question 9:	A. with	B. on	C. to	D. for
Question 10: A. able		B. capable	C. probable	D. possible
Question 11: A. call		B. lend	C. raise	D. rise
Question 12: A. for		B. with	C. at	D. to
Question 13: A. causes		B. makes	C. prevents	D. lets
Question 14: A. collect		B. collectively	C. collective	D. collection
Question 15: A. controlled		B. are controlling	C. are controlled	D. being controlled
Question 16: A. leaders		B. assistants	C. judges	D. trainees
Question 17: A. in		B. on	C. above	D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 18: All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance, performance,

A B C and they work hard.

D

Question 19: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town.

A B C D Question 20: Most of the students are queuing in lines waiting to enter the classroom.

A B C D

Question 21: Women in many parts of the world have had lower status than men, which the extent

A B

of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times.

C D

Question 22: Since January this year, Joe has suffered two injuries, one to his ankle and the other in New York.

A B C D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 32.

We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin – a behavioural biologist – describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give sleeping the importance it deserves.

Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time getting to work. Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV and the Internet tempt us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need eight or even eight and a half hours’ sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost permanent state of ‘sleep debt’.

Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our hours of sleep are mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by an alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world’s most popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the world’s population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.

What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it also reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society in general. Doctors, for example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on ‘night call’, and may get less than three hours’ sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be

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just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when exhausted isn’t. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone, whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.

New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP

Question 23: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul Martin? A. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.

He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.

Question 24: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to ______.

having a round clock B. all day and night C. surrounded with clocks D. during the daytime

Question 25: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ______.

an easy solution to sleep deprivation B. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation D. an ineffective means of communication

Question 26: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.

The electric light was invented in the 19^th century.
The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.

Question 27: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ______.

the world’s population B. masking the symptoms C. caffeine consumption D. reaching a point

Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?

Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.

Question 29: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ______.

likely to become worthless B. becoming more noticeable C. causing serious damage or loss D. bound to bring satisfaction

Question 30: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?

Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.

There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.

Question 31: All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by ‘sleep debt’ EXCEPT ______.

engineers

drivers

biologists

doctors

Question 32: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects B. Accident Prevention: Urgent!
A Society of Sleepless People D. A Well-known Biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 33: Many parents may fail to recognize and respond to their children’s needs until frustration explodes into difficult or uncooperative behavior.


A. remains at an unchanged level		B. suddenly becomes uncontrollable
C. slowly reaches the boiling point		D. stays under pressure

Question 34: “A friend in need is a friend indeed”: Our friends have voiced their strong criticism of China’s escalation of tension on our continental shelf.


A. facing the reality		B. easing the tension
C. worsening the situation		D. improving the condition

Question 35: Those children who stay longer hours at school than at home tend to spend their formative years in the company of others with similar aims and interests.


A. enjoying the care of parents			B. being together with friends
C. being separated from peers			D. forming a new business company

			Trang 3/6 – Mã đề 946

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 36: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.

a beautiful old European wooden B. an old beautiful wooden European C. a wooden old beautiful European D. an old wooden European beautiful

Question 37: Carbon dioxide ______ as one of the main contributors to the greenhouse effect.

has been identified B. had identified C. had been identified D. has identified Question 38: In my opinion, ______ new technology who will finally decide which ideas take off.

that the development of B. it is the user of
that the user of D. it is the development of

Question 39: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?”

Jane: “______”

Not a chance. B. I don’t believe it.
Well done! D. That’s very kind of you.

Question 40: Minh, a student from Hai Phong, is going to take the college entrance exam in Hanoi next week.

His father is seeing him off at the railway station. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Dad: “Good luck with the exam, Minh!”

Minh: “______, Dad.”

Never mind

Thank you

I wish so

By no means

Question 41: He applied for a teaching ______ at Bales University with great confidence. A. employment B. post C. work D. career

Question 42: “My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the airport.”

picking up B. to pick up C. picked up D. pick up

Question 43: The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair ______ her back.

running over B. fallen against C. flowed down D. streaming down

Question 44: “Could you turn off the stove? The potatoes ______ for at least thirty minutes.”

were boiling B. boiled C. are boiling D. have been boiling

Question 45: While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ______ this photograph of my parents’ wedding.

made up B. came across C. took after D. turned down

Question 46: In the last match, Sabella changed his formation at half-time, introducing Fernando Gago in midfield and Higuain in attack, but in the end it was Messi’s magic that ______ the difference.

did B. gave C. took D. made

Question 47: The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930’s and 1940’s, but it is still an important ______ of entertainment.

prospect B. origin C. status D. source

Question 48: ______ my mother’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have made such a daring decision.

In spite B. Providing C. Until D. But for

Question 49: We’ve already bought the house but won’t ______ it until May, when the present occupants have moved out.

keep track of

gain recognition of

take possession of

catch sight of

Question 50: In no circumstances ______ on campus.

should smoking be allowed

we should allow smoking

should allow smoking

smoking should be allowed

Question 51: The bank has more than 100 branches, ______ in a major urban area.

the location of which B. and are located C. each located D. each locating

Question 52: They got lost in the forest, and ______ made matters worse was that night began to fall.

it B. which C. what D. that

Question 53: Students are encouraged to develop critical thinking ______ accepting opinions without questioning them.

in addition

because of

instead of

for instance

Question 54: ______, she continued to carry out her duties.

Despite her good health B. Although in poor health
Although she is in good health D. No matter how poor her health

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Question 55: We need to talk more about ______ for the summer vacation before July.

where to go B. when to use C. why to choose D. how to make

Question 56: The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide ______ of flowers and fruit trees have added

elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.

number B. amount C. variety

species

Question 57: “Take a spare tyre ______ you have a puncture on the way to the beach.”

in case B. unless C. so that D. if

Question 58: Phuong Thao is a student in Ms Lan’s writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan’s comments on her last essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.

Phuong Thao: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”

Ms Lan: “______. I enjoyed it.”

Just in case B. You are welcome

Not in the least

At all costs

Question 59: Jessica looks very tired. She ______ have stayed up late to finish her assignment last night.

should B. must C. would D. will

Question 60: China’s placement of its oil rig in Vietnam’s East Sea EEZ has been denounced by ASEAN and

Western politicians and professionals as the violation of Vietnam’s ______ waters. A. territorial B. fresh C. farmed

inland

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.

Question 61: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.

The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.

If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.

Question 62: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.

Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.

He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.

Question 63: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table tennis championship.

Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of champion.

Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-school table tennis championship.

Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school table tennis champion.

Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.

Question 64: She looked through the hotel advertisements. She stopped only when taking a fancy to one piece.

She took so great a fancy to the hotel advertisements that she could not stop reading them.
She stopped looking through the hotel advertisements only when she had found another piece.
She stopped reading the hotel advertisements only when one of them caught her fancy.
She found the hotel advertisements so interesting that she could hardly turn away from them.

Question 65: I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don’t get muddled up.

I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.

I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don’t get muddled up.
I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 66 to 75.

Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stockfish and the Arabs dried dates and apricots.

All foods contain water – cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.

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Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.

Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Vivien Mosback. CUP

Question 66: What is the main idea of the passage? A. Different methods of drying foods.

Mechanization of drying foods.

Advantages of dried foods.

Water: the main component of food.

Question 67: The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.

remove moisture from foods B. produce pemmican
expose foods to sun and wind D. moisten foods

Question 68: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

examined carefully B. put a tick C. motivated to develop D. reduced considerably

Question 69: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.

maintain their color B. remove their wax coating
crack their skin D. kill off bacteria

Question 70: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______. A. dipping them in an alkaline solution

putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through C. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder D. spreading them out on trays in drying yards

Question 71: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?

Vegetables B. Foods C. Things D. Chambers

Question 72: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.

recognizable pieces B. dried soup C. fine powder D. small flakes

Question 73: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.
Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.
Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.

Question 74: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.

people who are on the move B. soldiers who are not in battle
explorers who are underweight D. housewives who have little storage space

Question 75: This passage is mainly ______.

argumentative B. analytical C. informative D. fictional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 76: A. edition	B. advantage	C. enrichment	D. sovereignty
Question 77: A. economic	B. continental	C. considerate	D. territorial
Question 78: A. commit	B. preview	C. index	D. open
Question 79: A. fertilize	B. illustrate	C. interact	D. specify
Question 80: A. habitat	B. wilderness	C. candidate	D. attendance

———- THE END ———-

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June 15, 2019

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh

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Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh

Chọn một từ ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) có trọng âm chính ở vị trí khác so với các từ còn lại, từ câu 1 đến 5.

Câu 1:	A. prevention	B. enterprise	C. implement	D. fertilize
Câu 2:	A. dynamism	B. interview		D. comfortable
			C. accompany
Câu 3:	A. accountancy	B. effectiveness		D. appropriate
			C. satisfaction
Câu 4:		B. oblige	C. secure	D. equip
	A. vacant
Câu 5:		B. representative	C. technological	D. punctuality
	A. characteristic

Đọc đoạn văn, chọn một cụm từ (một câu) ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống hoặc trả lời câu hỏi, từ 6 đến 15.

Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.

It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”

Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.

One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing, and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of intelligence as the other, performed even better.

This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.

Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.

People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice:

Marry an intelligent person.
Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child who wants to become an outstanding musician.

Câu 6: The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires __________.

	A. wealthy and loving parents		B. an expensive education
	C. good musical instruments		D. parental support and encouragement
Câu 7: The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to “__________”.
	A. other people	B. other children	C. other geniuses		D. other scientists
Câu 8: When scientists studied intelligence and ability in twins, they found that __________.
are	A. ability depends both on intelligence and on environment			B. intelligence and development
	irrelevant to ability
	C. different twins generally have different levels of ability.			D. ability depends mainly on
intelligence and achievement

Câu 9: Scientists chose twins for their study because __________.

they have the same economic background and hence the same opportunities
each twin has the same environment as his/her twin

1

they have the same genetic background, usually with similar intelligence D. they are born into the same family, hence the same upbringing

Câu 10: How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?

They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic. B. They practice playing their

instruments for many years.

They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas. D. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nutured.

Câu 11: The writer advises that gifted children should be allowed to follow __________.

	A. their own interests	B. only their interests in computer games
	C. their parent’s interests	D. only their interests in musical instruments
Câu 12: When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid __________.
	A. pushing their children too hard.	B. permitting them to follow their own interests
	C. starting their education at an early age	D. letting them play their own way

Câu 13: The remark: “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” in the passage means that in order to become a genius __________.

	A. you should try to move quickly and efficiently	B. you must nourish your brain and train your
muscles hard		D. you need to have good health and good
	C. you need intelligence and you need to develop it	D. you need to have good health and good
	nourishment

Câu 14: The word “favorable” in the passage mostly means __________.

“helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
“good for someone and making him/her likely to be successful”

“under the control or in the power of somebody else” D. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”

Câu 15: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT __________.

to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
educational development depends completely on economic well-being

Chọn một cụm từ (một câu) ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống để thành câu hoàn chỉnh, từ câu 16 đến 20.

Câu 16: After seeing the movie “Pride and Prejudice”, _________.

	A. the book was read by many people		B. the reading of the book interested many
people
	C. the book made many people want to read it		D. many people wanted to read the book
Câu 17: It is essential _________.
	A. for everyone who knows what to do in the event of fire			B. that everyone know what to do when
there is a fire			D. that everyone to know what to do when there
	C. for everyone knowing what to do in the event of fire		D. that everyone to know what to do when there
is a fire
Câu 18: The instructions from air traffic control were not fully explicit, and _________.
	A. as a result, the pilot made an error and crashed			B. so that the pilot made an error and
crashed
	C. therefore the pilot made it crash		D. resulting from the pilot crashing the plane
Câu 19: Recent evidence makes it possible for the investigators to conclude that _________.
	A. some paintings by Rembrandt were faked	B. Rembrandt was attituded to some paintings
	C. some paintings by Rembrandt must be faked D. some paintings by Rembrandt to be faked
Câu 20: In bacteria and other organisms, _________.
	A. the DNA that provides the genetic information			B. the DNA providing the genetic
information
	C. which is the DNA that provides the genes		D. it is the DNA that provides the genetic
information

2

Đọc đoạn văn, chọn một từ ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống của đoạn văn, từ 21 đến 30.

THE FAMILY

Statesmen define a family as “a group of individuals having a common dwelling and related by blood, adoption or marriage, ___21___ includes common-law relationships.” Most people are born into one of these groups and ___22___ live their lives as a family in such a group.

Although the definition of a family may not change, ___23___ relationship of people to each other within the family group changes as society changes. More and more wives are ___24___ paying jobs, and, as a result, the roles of husband, wife and children are changing. Today, men expect to ___25___ for pay for about 40 years of their lives, and, in today’s marriages ___26___ which both spouses have paying jobs, women can expect to work for about 30 to 35 years of their lives. This mean that man must learn to do their share of family tasks such as caring for the children and daily ___27___ chores. Children, too, especially adolescents, have to ___28___ with the members od their family in sharing household tasks.

The widespread acceptance of contraception has meant that having ___29___ is as matter of choice, not an automatic result of marriage. Marriage itself has become a choice. As alternatives ___30___ common-law relationships and single-parent families have become socially acceptable, women will become more

independent.

Câu 21:

A. what

B. which

C. it

D. that

Câu 22:

A. need

B. would

D. must

C. will

Câu 23:

A. a

C. any

D. some

B. the

Câu 24:

A. keeping

B. performing

D. making

C. taking

Câu 25:

A. hope

B. ask

C. live

D. work

Câu 26:

A. with

C. for

D. to

B. in

Câu 27:

A. family

B. house

C. home

D. household

Câu 28:

A. combine

B. deal

D. carry

C. cooperate

Câu 29:

A. happiness

C. time

D. families

B. children

Câu 30:

A. like

B. similar to

D. or else

C. such as

Chọn một cụm từ gạch chân ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) cần phải sửa, từ câu 31 đến 35.

Câu 31: If you have no cash, you can charge this dinner of your credit card.

A B C D Câu 32: She had to leave because she didn’t see eyes to eyes with her boss.

A B C D

Câu 33: Do you know that there is a high rate in interest on this loan?

A B C D

Câu 34: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.

A B C D

Câu 35: With the development of the Internet and the World Wide Web, businessmen do not hardly have as much traveling as

A B C

they used to.

D

Chọn một một câu ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất được kết hợp từ câu đã cho, từ câu 36 đến 40.

Câu 36: He felt very tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the moutain.

He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
As the result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Câu 37: The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him discuss and formulate new policies.

A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him discuss and formulate new policies.

3

The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new policies.

A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed and formulated new policies.

The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new policies

Câu 38: Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment whereas others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists, feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows more jobs to be created.

Câu 39: One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions on the paper. The instrustions appeared at the top of every page.

One student failed to ignore the instructions printed at the top of every page of the paper.

One student failed because he completely ignored the instructions appearing at the top of every page of the paper.

No matter how completely one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every page of the paper, he failed.
Even though one student ignored the instructions printed at the top of every page, he failed.

Câu 40: She heard the news of the death of her mother. She fainted.

She fainted and then she heard the news of the death of her mother. B. On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she fainted.

On hearing the news of her dead mother, she fainted. D. She fainted so she heard the news of the death of her mother.

Đọc đoạn văn, chọn một cụm từ (một câu) ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống hoặc trả lời câu hỏi, từ 41 đến 50.

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.

Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not aliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moistskinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated.

Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Câu 41: The title for this passage could be _________.

A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”	B. “Life Underground”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”	D. “Desert Plants”

Câu 42: The word “tissues” in the passage mostly means _________.

“very smal living things that cause infectious disease in people, animals and plants”
“the simplest forms of life that exist in air, water, living and dead creatures and plants”
“collections of cells that form the different parts of humans, animals and plants”
“the smallest units of living matter that can exist on their own”

Câu 43: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as _________.

4

	A. very few lagre animals are found in the desert		B. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
of	C. water is an essential part of his existence		D. water composes the greater part of the tissues
	living things
Câu 44: The pharse “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT _________.
	A. many large animals	B. the coyote and the bobcat
	C. moist-skinned animals	D. water-loving animals

Câu 45: According to the passage, creatures in the desert _________.

run and leap more slowly than those in the tangled forest B. are more active during the day than those

in the tangled forest

run and leap faster than those in the tangled forest D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in

the world

Câu 46: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

_________.		B. they dig home underground
	A. they are watchfull and quiet	B. they dig home underground
	C. they sleep during the day	D. they are noisy and aggressive

Câu 47: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means _________.

“living or growing in natural conditions, not kept in a house or on a farm”
“thin and weak because of lack of food and water”
“large and strong, difficult to control or deal with ”
“able to get what one wants in a clever way, especially by tricking or cheating”

Câu 48: According to the passage, one characteristic of animals living in the desert is that _________.

A. they can hunt in temperature of 150 degrees	B. they live in an accommodating environment
C. they are smaller and fleeter than forest animals		D. they are less healthy than animals
living in other places

Câu 49: The word “burrows” in the passage mostly means _________.

“holes or tunnels in the ground made by animals for them to live in”
“places where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found”
“structures made of metal bars in which animals or birds are kept”
“places where insects or other small creatures live and produce their young” Câu 50: We can infer from the passage that _________.

A. desert life is colorful and diverse		B. water is the basis of desert life
C. living things adjust to their environment		D. healthy animals live longer lives

Chọn một cụm từ ứng với một trong 4 phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống để thành câu hoàn chỉnh, từ câu 51 đến 80.

Câu 51: She _______ on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

	A. has been working		B. has worked	C. had been working	D. was working
Câu 52: It’s nice I am now in London again. This is the second time I ________ there.
	A. was		B. would be	C. will be	D. have been
Câu 53: Realizing he got lost, he started to ________ help.
	A. call	for	B. go for	C. call at	D. go to
Câu 54: I ________ my Mum by cooking dinner for her.
	A. cheered up		B. waited for	C. looked up	D. felt like
Câu 55: He told everyone that he had flu, but in fact, he had just ________ a cold.
	A. gone in for		B. come up with	C. maked up for	D. come down with
Câu 56: “If we can’t afford a car, we’ll just have to ________ one.”
	A. do with		B. put up with	C. do without	D. catch up with
Câu 57: ________ has she behaved like that before.
	A. Only by		B. For	C. When	D. Never

Câu 58: A good essay must ________ contain enough interesting ideas and specific examples but also have good organization.

A. either	B. as well	C. in addition	D. not only
Câu 59: You should stop working too hard ________ you’ll get sick.”
A. if	B. or else	C. in case	D. whereas

5

Câu 60: Although he was ________, he agreed to play tennis with me.
	A. exhausted	B. exhaustive	C. exhausting	D. exhaustion
Câu 61: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to keep oneself ________.
	A. occupation	B. occupied	C. occupant	D. occupational
Câu 62: Creat a new ________ and put all your files into it.
	A. directing	B. directory	C. direction	D. director
Câu 63: She was finding it difficult to stay ________ during the meeting.
	A. awake	B. wakening	C. waking	D. wakened
Câu 64: He carried a(n) ________ driving license.
	A. unfaithful	B. false	C. artificial	D. untrue
Câu 65: As the drug took ________ , the patient bacame quieter.
	A. force	B. influence	C. effect	D. action
Câu 66: You’re very quiet today. What have you got on your ________ ?
	A. attention	B. spirit	C. brain	D. mind

Câu 67: Instead of doing their own painting and papering, they hired a firm of ________ decorators.

A. inward	B. inside	C. internal	D. interior
Câu 68: -“More coffee? Anybody?” – “ ________ ”.
A. It’s right, I think	B. I’d love to	C. I don’t agree, I’m afraid		D. Yes, please
Câu 69: -“Do you like the weather here?” -“I wish it ________ .”
A. doesn’t rain	B. didn’t rain	C. won’t rain	D. hadn’t rained
Câu 70: -“Oh, I’m really sorry!” – “ ________ ”
A. Thanks.	B. That’s all right.	C. Yes, why?	D. It was a pleasure.

Câu 71: They made the fried chiken by the mixing ________ flour with water, then flouring the chiken.

	A. few	B. a few	C. a little	D. little
Câu 72: You ________ the washing-up. I could have done it for you.
	A. couldn’t have done	B. needn’t have done	C. hadn’t to do	D. mustn’t have done
Câu 73: ________ of the shop, my friend come in.
	A. As I came out	B. Coming out	C. When coming out	D. On coming out
Câu 74: “Never say that again, ________ ?”
	A. do you	B. will you	C. won’t you	D. don’t you
Câu 75: Widespread forest destruction ________ in this particular area.
	A. ought to see	B. can be seen	C. could have seen	D. must have seen
Câu 76: ________ anything suspicious arise, please let me know at once.
	A. Would	B. Can	C. Did	D. Should

Câu 77: In some countries, on moral ________ that education should not be taxed, there is no tax on books.

principle B. concept C. reason D. idea

Câu 78: Students are often advised to look at the first and last ________ of a book before attempting to read it in detail.

	A. paragraphs	B. headings	C. titles	D. chapters
Câu 79: He travels ________ for 20 years and then he decided to return home.
	A. farthest of all	B. far and wide	C. far from it	D. father away
Câu 80: I ________ several musicians around that time.
	A. got back to		B. came up with
	C. made the acquaintance of		D. made friends to

6

June 15, 2019

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2014

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2014

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Tổng hợp các đề cương đại học hiện có của Đại Học Hàng Hải: Đề Cương VIMARU

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Tải ngay đề cương bản PDF tại đây: Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2014

Đề thi Đại học

Môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2014

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ______.
A. more heat it retains		B. it retains the more heat
C. the heat it retains more		D. the more heat it retains
Question 2: We received a call from the teacher ______ charge of our course.
A. at	B. in	C. on	D. to
Question 3: Tom hasn’t completed the work yet and Maria hasn’t ______.
A. neither	B. either	C. too	D. also
Question 4: ______ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it.
A. No longer	B. So strong	C. Hardly ever	D. How strong
Question 5: We could have caught the last train, but we ______ five minutes late.
A. were	B. would be	C. have been	D. are
Question 6: Do you remember ______ to help us when we were in difficulty?
A. you offer	B. being offered	C. once offering	D. to offer

Question 7: In our team, no person ______ John could finish this tough task in such a short time.

including B. rather than C. outside D. other than

Question 8: ______ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university. A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although

Meanwhile

Question 9: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ______ to visit our school next week.

are going

is going

are

has had

Question 10: Be sure not to rely too ______ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language.

A. abundantly	B. severely	C. numerously	D. heavily
Question 11: Communities in remote areas are extremely _____ to famine if crops fail.
A. vulnerable	B. helpless	C. disappointed	D. defenseless
Question 12: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ______ what they were saying.
A. try out	B. turn up	C. make out	D. bring about
Question 13: ______ always gives me real pleasure.
A. I arrange flowers		B. The flowers are arranged
C. Arranging flowers		D. While arranging flowers
Question 14: ______ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task.
A. If we had had	B. If we have	C. If we had	D. Unless we had
Question 15: The theory of relativity ______ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist.
A. was developed	B. developed	C. is developed	D. develops
Question 16: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ______ that she’ll be promoted next month.
A. too successfully	B. so successfully	C. too successful	D. very successful
Question 17: Sammy had worked in England for a year ______ moving to Scotland.
A. before	B. once	C. until	D. while
Question 18: We hoped ______ they would come and give us new lectures.
A. that	B. what	C. when	D. which

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Question 19: In my apartment there are two rooms, ______ is used as the living-room.

A. the large one		B. the larger of which
C. the largest one		D. the largest of which
Question 20: “It’s about time you ______ your homework, Mary.”
A. do	B. did	C. must do	D. will do
Question 21: The girl was used ______ birthday presents from her brothers.
A. to receive	B. to receiving	C. to being received	D. to be receiving
Question 22: Applications _____ in after 30^th April will not be considered.
A. which sent	B. that is sent	C. sent	D. send
Question 23: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!”
Sue: “______”
A. How dare you?	B. Thank you.	C. I’m afraid so.	D. Don’t mention it.
Question 24: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you.”
John: “______”
A. Wouldn’t you? Why?		B. It’s out of the question.
C. I’d rather you didn’t.		D. Would you, really?

Question 25: Mary: “The hat’s so beautiful. Thanks.”

Tony: “________”

I’m glad you like it.

Great idea!

Lucky you!

The same to you!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.

A radio telescope is a radio receiver that “sees” radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light, a radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are emitted by celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules.

The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build his own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber’s first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space.

A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal point, allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals can be received and focalized.

In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-six-meter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope in the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the sun’s radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100-meter diameter telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in the state of Ohio. The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India.

Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes, the unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into places like the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and ears in outer space.

By Timothy Hall, Arthur H. Milch and Denise McCormach. How to Master skills for the TOEFL iBT

Question 26: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ______.

normal light of celestial objects B. radio waves sent out by celestial objects C. creatures that inhabit celestial objects D. shapes and sizes of celestial objects

Question 27: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ______.

he was an amateur radio operator B. he was an astronomer C. he was an engineer D. he was an inventor

Question 28: Grote Reber’s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ______.

he first built one in his backyard B. he graduated from an engineering school
he experimented on the third one D. he picked up signals from outer space

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Question 29:

send

The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. B. receive C. select

lift

Question 30: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant.
The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter.
A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results.
The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes.

Question 31:	The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. water movement		B.	electricity flow	C. moving	D. existing
Question 32:	The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. places				C. radio waves	D. eyes and ears
		B. scientists

Question 33: Radio waves are scientists’ eyes and ears in outer space because ______.

they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars
they help to track only manned space missions in space C. they can recognize who dominates the universe

they can help them understand more about the universe Question 34: The focus of discussion in the passage is ______.
radio telescopes B. radio waves
radio operators D. atoms and molecules

Question 35: Originally, this passage was probably published in ______.

a fashion magazine B. a scientific journal
a business journal D. a book on environment

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.

Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find the energy to get out of bed (36)_______ for school? According to a new report, today’s generation of children are in danger of getting so (37)________ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (38)________. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (39)________ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (40)_________ anything between two and five hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.

This (41)_________ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction time and poor concentration is well (42)_________. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s sleep a night can have profound effects (43)________ how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep (44)________ they release a hormone that is essential for their ‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can, to some (45)________, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.

		By Tim Falla and Paul A. Davies. Solutions Advanced. OUP
Question 36: A. in time	B. at time	C. behind time	D. about time
Question 37: A. less	B. little	C. few	D. much
Question 38: A. risk	B. danger	C. threat	D. jeopardy
Question 39: A. because	B. so	C. or	D. whereas
Question 40: A. makes	B. puts	C. gets	D. brings
Question 41: A. rises	B. raises	C. comes	D. results
Question 42: A. arranged	B. organized	C. established	D. acquired
Question 43: A. on	B. in	C. at	D. to
Question 44: A. where	B. that	C. which	D. at which
Question 45: A. level	B. rate	C. extent	D. point

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 46: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous tourists managed to reach the top.

causing a lot of risks
costing a lot of money

bringing excitement
resulting in depression

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Question 47: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the

human cell.

deep understanding
spectacular sightings

in-depth studies

far-sighted views

Question 48: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern.

able to hear B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. obedient to parents

Question 49: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview.

small number B. hand C. class D. small amount

Question 50: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much more likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage.

convenient to prepare

harmful to health

beneficial to health

full of preservatives

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60.

The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together.

An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow.

Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.

By Helena Gillespie and Rob Gillespie. Science for Primary School Teachers. OUP

Question 51: Electrical conductivity is ______.

one of the most important properties of metals
one of the key properties of most solid materials

impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water D. completely impossible for silicon

Question 52: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ______.

the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
the way its atoms bond together
the absence of free electrons
its atoms with a positive charge

Question 53: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.

A. furthest from the	inside	B. nearest to the inside
C. the heaviest		D. the lightest

Question 54: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ______.

they lose all of their electrons
negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
electrons can flow in a single direction
the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons

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Question 55: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ______.

A. its charged ions can flow easily			B. it has free electrons
C. its charged ions are not free to move			D. it cannot create any charged ions
Question 56: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. charged particles			B. electrical insulators
C. electric currents			D. charged ions

Question 57: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ______.

only a small amount of fully charged particles

only a negative electric charge

no positive or negative electric charge

only a positive electric charge

Question 58: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ______. A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive

the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive

the water itself is a good conductor of electricity

the water contains too many neutral molecules

Question 59: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

Some materials are more conductive than others.

Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.

Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.

Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.

Question 60: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?

Electrical Insulators B. Electrical Energy

Electrical Devices D. Electrical Conductivity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 61: A. survive	B. enlarge	C. struggle	D. occur
Question 62: A. preservative	B. conventional	C. reliable	D. intellectual
Question 63: A. property	B. customer	C. computer	D. energy
Question 64: A. environment	B. technology	C. predominance	D. superstition
Question 65: A. popular	B. impatient	C. decisive	D. observant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 66: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time with

A B C D

the clients.

Question 67: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time.

A B C D

Question 68: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.

A B C D Question 69: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots.

A B C D

Question 70: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 71: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications.

The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications.

Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.

I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications.

Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.

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Question 72: They arrived too late to get good seats.

As they got there too late, there were no good seats left.
Although they were late, they found some good seats.
They got good seats some time after they arrived.
They had to stand for the whole show.

Question 73: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me.

Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me.
I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was.
Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me.

As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without.

Question 74: I forgot to lock the door before leaving.

I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it.
I left without remembering to lock the door.
I remembered that I left the door locked before going out.
I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving.

Question 75: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning.

I should have changed my mind about resigning.
They asked me no question about resigning.
I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning.

Nobody knows about my decision on resigning.

Question 76: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car.

There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive.
The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker.
It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day.
During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic.

Question 77: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies.

I find it difficult to understand what he really means.
Understanding what he implies is found difficult.
What he implies is not very difficult to understand.

To understand what he really means is difficult to find.

Question 78: “Get out of my car or I’ll call the police!” Jane shouted to the strange man.

Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car.
Jane plainly said that she would call the police.
Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car.
Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police.

Question 79: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.” A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.

John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.
John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.

John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.

Question 80: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow.

Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter.
Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow.
We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow.

———- THE END ———-

Trang 6/6 – Mã đề 163

June 15, 2019

1	D	21	D	41	B	61	D
2	B	22	A	42	D	62	B
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	C
4	D	24	C	44	C	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	C	65	B

6	B	26	C	46	C	66	C
7	A	27	C	47	B	67	D
8	C	28	C	48	A	68	B
9	D	29	A	49	D	69	A
10	B	30	A	50	C	70	C

11	C	31	A	51	C	71	B
12	C	32	C	52	C	72	C
13	B	33	D	53	D	73	C
14	C	34	A	54	B	74	A
15	D	35	D	55	D	75	B

16	A	36	A	56	A	76	D
17	C	37	A	57	A	77	C
18	B	38	D	58	C	78	A
19	C	39	A	59	C	79	A
20	A	40	D	60	B	80	B

1	C	21	A	41	A	61	C
2	A	22	A	42	A	62	A
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	B
4	C	24	D	44	D	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	B	65	D

6	D	26	D	46	A	66	C
7	A	27	D	47	A	67	A
8	D	28	B	48	C	68	B
9	D	29	C	49	C	69	B
10	B	30	A	50	B	70	B

11	C	31	D	51	C	71	C
12	C	32	B	52	B	72	D
13	D	33	C	53	B	73	C
14	B	34	B	54	A	74	C
15	A	35	D	55	D	75	D

16	B	36	A	56	B	76	B
17	B	37	A	57	D	77	D
18	C	38	B	58	B	78	C
19	C	39	D	59	D	79	B
20	A	40	B	60	C	80	B

1	D	21	D	41	B	61	D
2	B	22	A	42	D	62	B
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	C
4	D	24	C	44	C	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	C	65	B

6	B	26	C	46	C	66	C
7	A	27	C	47	B	67	D
8	C	28	C	48	A	68	B
9	D	29	A	49	D	69	A
10	B	30	A	50	C	70	C

11	C	31	A	51	C	71	B
12	C	32	C	52	C	72	C
13	B	33	D	53	D	73	C
14	C	34	A	54	B	74	A
15	D	35	D	55	D	75	B

16	A	36	A	56	A	76	D
17	C	37	A	57	A	77	C
18	B	38	D	58	C	78	A
19	C	39	A	59	C	79	A
20	A	40	D	60	B	80	B

1	C	21	A	41	A	61	C
2	A	22	A	42	A	62	A
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	B
4	C	24	D	44	D	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	B	65	D

6	D	26	D	46	A	66	C
7	A	27	D	47	A	67	A
8	D	28	B	48	C	68	B
9	D	29	C	49	C	69	B
10	B	30	A	50	B	70	B

11	C	31	D	51	C	71	C
12	C	32	B	52	B	72	D
13	D	33	C	53	B	73	C
14	B	34	B	54	A	74	C
15	A	35	D	55	D	75	D

16	B	36	A	56	B	76	B
17	B	37	A	57	D	77	D
18	C	38	B	58	B	78	C
19	C	39	D	59	D	79	B
20	A	40	B	60	C	80	B

Category: Kiến Thức Trung Học

ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC MÔN: ĐỊA LÝ ĐỀ 16 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

Câu 1(2 đ ).

Câu 2.

Câu 3(3 đ). Cho bảng số liệu sau:

Câu 4(2 đ).

Đáp án.

Đề thi thử Đại học môn Địa lý năm 2014 – GDĐT Vĩnh Phúc

I. PHẦN CHUNG CHO TẤT CẢ CÁC THÍ SINH (8,0 điểm)

Câu I (2,5 điểm)

Câu II (2,5 điểm)

Câu III (3,0 điểm) Cho bảng số liệu:

PHẦN RIÊNG (2,0 điểm)

Câu IV. a. Theo chương trình Chuẩn (2,0 điểm)

Câu IV. b. Theo chương trình Nâng cao (2,0 điểm)

ĐÁP ÁN

Đề và đáp án đề thi đại học môn Địa lý khối C năm 2010

Câu

Ý

Nội dung

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh (Đề số 2)

Chọn một từ có trọng âm chính ở vị trí khác so với các từ còn lại, từ câu 1 đến 5

Chọn một từ (cụm từ) gạch chân cần phải sửa, từ câu 11 đến 15

Chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) điền vào chỗ trống để hoàn thành câu, từ câu 16 đến 46

Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống, từ câu 47 đến 55

Chọn một câu gần nghĩa nhất với câu đã cho, từ câu 56 đến 60

Đọc đoạn văn sau, chọn một phương án (A, B, C hoặc D) thích hợp nhất điền vào chỗ trống, từ câu 71 đến 80

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh

PRACTICE TEST 5

Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank.

Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes unfinished sentences.

Choose the underlined words or phrases that are not correct

Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Choose the word that has the main stress placed differently from that of the others.

Choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the printed one

ĐÁP ÁN

Ôn thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh

PRACTICE TEST 4

ĐÁP ÁN

Đề luyện thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2019

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Đề thi Đại học môn Tiếng Anh khối D năm 2014

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Đề thi Đại học môn tiếng Anh

Đề thi Đại học

Môn Tiếng Anh khối A1 năm 2014

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 45.

1	D	21	D	41	B	61	D
2	B	22	A	42	D	62	B
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	C
4	D	24	C	44	C	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	C	65	B

6	B	26	C	46	C	66	C
7	A	27	C	47	B	67	D
8	C	28	C	48	A	68	B
9	D	29	A	49	D	69	A
10	B	30	A	50	C	70	C

11	C	31	A	51	C	71	B
12	C	32	C	52	C	72	C
13	B	33	D	53	D	73	C
14	C	34	A	54	B	74	A
15	D	35	D	55	D	75	B

16	A	36	A	56	A	76	D
17	C	37	A	57	A	77	C
18	B	38	D	58	C	78	A
19	C	39	A	59	C	79	A
20	A	40	D	60	B	80	B

1	C	21	A	41	A	61	C
2	A	22	A	42	A	62	A
3	A	23	B	43	B	63	B
4	C	24	D	44	D	64	D
5	C	25	D	45	B	65	D

6	D	26	D	46	A	66	C
7	A	27	D	47	A	67	A
8	D	28	B	48	C	68	B
9	D	29	C	49	C	69	B
10	B	30	A	50	B	70	B

11	C	31	D	51	C	71	C
12	C	32	B	52	B	72	D
13	D	33	C	53	B	73	C
14	B	34	B	54	A	74	C
15	A	35	D	55	D	75	D

16	B	36	A	56	B	76	B
17	B	37	A	57	D	77	D
18	C	38	B	58	B	78	C
19	C	39	D	59	D	79	B
20	A	40	B	60	C	80	B